DWM Posted March 21, 2007 Report Share Posted March 21, 2007 [hv=d=w&v=e&n=saxxxhajxxdxxxckt&s=sxxxxhxxdqjtxxxcx]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Bidding Starting with West (1♣) X (3NT) 4D(5♣) P (P) 5D(P) P (X) Should north have doubled the 5♣ bid? With no double there should south have bid 5♦, bearing in mind the fav vun? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted March 21, 2007 Report Share Posted March 21, 2007 At matchpoints I would have taken my chances with a double of 5♣. After all, I think this is going down more often than making. At imps, I would just pass and defend 5♣ and hope partners 4♦ bid removed them from an ice-cold 3NT contract to something we can beat. If we can, we win huge, if not, we break even or get a small plus for the overtrick in NT they don't get in 5♣. However, the problem in my mind's eye on this hand is south's 4♦===5♦ bidding. South described his hand (more or less) with the 4♦ call. His bidding at that point should be over. If he was going to bid 5♦ anyway, he should have bid it the round before. So south went from hero (4♦) to zero (5♦). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted March 21, 2007 Report Share Posted March 21, 2007 I might have passed 5♣ with South's hand. 4♦ was already a stretch.. North knows that because if 3NT was a joke and South has a good hand after all, South should dbl. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted March 21, 2007 Report Share Posted March 21, 2007 North has 3 tricks and a partner who bid... he can find a X. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted March 22, 2007 Report Share Posted March 22, 2007 North has 3 tricks and a partner who bid... he can find a X. Pass is OK, though dbl might be better. In any case, South should not bid 5D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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