two bidding questions

[frouu]

Q1) MP's, white/white, I'm holding ♠xx ♥xxx ♦9xxx ♣xxxx, and the bidding goes

 

pass - 1♠ - 1NT - X

pass - pass - 2♦ - 2♠

pass - pass - 3♦ - 4♣

pass - 4♠ - X - pass

??

 

I passed, and the opps made 4♠X, my p said I should have bid 5♦, do you agree?

 

 

Q2) MP's red/red , I'm holding ♠KQxx ♥87654 ♦AQx ♣x, and the bidding goes

 

1♦ - pass - 1♥ - pass

3♦ - pass - ??

 

I bid 3♠ and my p bid 3NT, and I passed. I thought settling at NT was a poor decision when I put the dummy, but luckily my p had ♠J ♥AKQ ♦KJTxxx ♣KQx , it made +2. well, no slam in diamonds, so this was top. How would you bid this?

[Finch]

Q1) I would not wish to play with anyone who bid as your partner did. Whatever he is up to is entirely his own concern, is obviously absurd, and I don't think I am invited to the party.

 

Q2) You finished in an excellent contract, so no complaints. However, there are a number of tough bidding decisions from both sides.

 

i) Your partner's rebid after 1D - 1H. He is really too good to rebid 3D which is not forcing: he has a 19-count with huge 3-card support for your suit. Most people would do something nasty such as invent a 3C rebid to show the game force.

 

3S on your hand was impeccable.

 

After 3NT from partner, I would be tempted to bid 4D as a diamond slam is certainly possible, but at matchpoints passing 3NT is certainly tempting. At IMPs I would not have passed.

 

A pair with sound agreements might finish in 4NT, but that requires fairly sound partnership understandings (and is actually a level too high).

[pbleighton]

I think your bidding is fine on both hands.

 

Peter

[HeartA]

Q1) Your pd is 100% for the blame. Since he tried to blame you, add another 100% to him.

Q2) 3D is not forcing as others pointed out. And 3D would block himself to show ♥ support before 3NT. A better bid from your pd is 3C and you then would bid 3D:

1♦ - 1♥

3♣ - 3♦

3♥ - 3♠/4♥

4NT - ... 5♥ (5♦).

 

Over your pd's 3D, 3S is fine and pass over 3NT is OK, too. The alternative of pass is to bid 4D.

Edited March 22, 2007 by HeartA

[whereagles]

Q1: agree with your pard. He has 6 diams and his dbl just means "I have a max, do something". Since you have a REAL min, opps probably make 4♠, so bid 5♦.

 

Q2: you bid it wonderfully. If pard hadn't bid 3NT over 3♠, you could have bid 6♦ because then there would be no club wastage.

[1eyedjack]

Re Q1:

There is something of a tradition that once you push them into game when you could have dropped them in a partscore you are obligated to double. (Just like if you are Turkish on BBO and they double you are obligated to redouble, regardless of your prospects.) It is a tradition that I have discarded quite a while ago.

So, it seems that partner has made a limited overcall of 1NT, and then later clarified that it was based on a source of long Diamond tricks, with a Spade guard or two. It is difficult to see how, by the time he has bid 4D, he has anything further to say about his hand. The double SOUNDS like a kneejerk traditional "I have pushed them into game so I had better double". If he does not double 4S there is perhaps a case for your bidding 5D on "Law" grounds. Don't know that I would find it. But if you trust his double I would pass.

[mhais]

:rolleyes: it all dependent on partnership understanding in this case p has 3 tricks & me 2 have 1 trick i dont have i bid 5d.

[Apollo81]

Q1. Pard gets 100% of the blame.

 

Q2. Your partner is too strong to rebid 3♦; the advanced/expert rebid with his hand is probably 3♣. I also think you should try for slam (4♦) over 3NT and that you got lucky on this deal.