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[hv=d=e&v=e&n=sakxhxxdktxxcqj93&s=sxhakqjdaqxckt742]133|200|Scoring: IMP

East deals and passes. Opps silent[/hv]

 

How do you bid this using 2/1, Walsh, RKCBW 1430.

No Inverted Minors. No other home made systems. Please don't post "With my pard we would bid an artificial X showing Y and Z".

 

 

Our Bidding

S N

1 - 1

2 - 3

3 - 3

4NT [1430] - 5

pass

 

5 making 6

 

Everyone made 6, 6NT.

Even 3NT+3 beat us.

 

Was this a slam we should have found?

South needed the Dime K and Club Q from North.

Should that have been "assumed"?

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Inverted minors are a homemade system? Ouch :)

 

Ok presuming your style is to respond 1 on north's hand, which I think is inferior but fine, the first mistake was north's 3 bid. He has an excellent hand with excellent support, and there is no reason in the world not to jump to 4. Then south, knowing north wouldnt bid this way with bad clubs or bad diamonds (no need to 'assume' the honors, as the bidding shows them), would be able to keycard and place the hand in slam confidently.

 

As the auction went, south's 4NT bid was a huge mistake, because (as occured) he had no idea what to do over partner's reply. Look at poor unlimited north, about to force the hand to slam but then dropped in his own keycard reply! Over 3 south could bid 4, 4, or 4, whichever suits your style. Another way to think about it is after his first 3 bids, south has shown very accurately his strength and shape, so north knows a lot more about south's hand than south knows about north's. Therefore it should be up to north to take control and place the contract (the way the auction had gone to that point.)

 

So 3 was the first big mistake, but 4NT was even worse.

 

And that makes my recommended auction 1 1 2 4 4NT 5 6. Then at mps I would convert to 6NT as north, taking the chance that partner has a singleton diamond but improving my score most of the time on a hand where I expect the field to be in slam.

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My first bid is a forcing raise with the North hand establishing a fit and create a game force from there it will be routine to get to 6 or 6NT.

 

What your non-homemade system does not have a forcing raise in a minor? Then that is a serious flaw by whoever designed that system. Perhaps it is something you should discuss with your partner.

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I don't understand the auction.. south asks for keycards, finds out you are only missing one keycard and passes 5C. That does not make sense. If you don't know what to do after bidding RKC, then don't bid it.
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I suggest that North, instead of South, to initiate the slam inevestigation, after South's reverse (or jump shift):

 

1 - 1

2 - 3

3 - 4NT

5 - 6

 

If South had two KCs only, well, too bad. I also agree that South should bid to slam with one KC short.

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[hv=d=e&v=e&n=sakxhxxdktxxcqj93&s=sxhakqjdaqxckt742]133|200|Scoring: IMP

East deals and passes.  Opps silent[/hv]

 

How do you bid this using 2/1, Walsh,  RKCBW 1430.

No Inverted Minors.  No other home made systems.  Please don't post "With my pard we would bid an artificial X showing Y and Z". 

 

 

Our Bidding

S          N

1 - 1

2 - 3

3 - 3

4NT [1430] - 5

pass

 

5 making 6

 

Everyone made 6, 6NT.

Even 3NT+3 beat us.

 

Was this a slam we should have found?

South needed the Dime K and Club Q from North.

Should that have been "assumed"?

My suggestion for what you play.

 

1C-1D

2H-2S

3D-3S

3N-4C

4D-4N

5D-6C

 

A further comment: playing Walsh, it is critical to have some continuations in 1-1-1 auctions - I suggest x,y, z.

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Bummer no Ingberman in place so the S hand is not sure how good the N hand is for the 3C bid. Due to that lack of understanding I suppose the N hand is forced to bid 4C to get the strenght and slam ambitions off their chest.

 

Like anopther poster, I feel if you bid keycard and pass you have taken a poor step. Surely the N hand is not really being consulted and simply can do nothing.

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Our Bidding

S N

1 - 1

2 - 3

3 - 3

4NT [1430] - 5

pass

I agree with your bidding up to 3.

 

From there I think it should continue:

4 - 4

4 - 4

4NT - 5

6NT

 

2 is GF to me, so north has cooperated in a slam exploring sequence.

For his bidding, I'd not expect anything less than he's got.

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This is sort of difficult to analyze, as your style of cuebidding is not described. That being said, it seems very poor for either partner to leap to 4NT for the purpose of asking for Aces when a possible answer will not rule out slam but will result in that person not bidding the slam.

 

Something should happen between 3 and one of the two partners bidding 4NT.

 

The 4-4-4-4-4NT auction makes sense, if this is permitted in your approach, because Opener finds out about a second spade card, a diamond card, and a general acceptability before bidding 4NT.

 

The suggestion for Responder to move to 4NT instead of Opener has some possibilities, except doing that directly after 3 seems equally disturbing.

 

Is there some rush to 4NT? Do you get more points if you bid the slam with fewer bids, like Name That Tune or something?

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