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Minor After A Transfer


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In an auction like 1NT(15-17)-2H-2S-3C, what kind of hand does the 3C bidder show?

 

I took it as slam invitational, at least 5-4 in spades and diamonds, my partner meant it as at least 5-5, not necessarily so strong, offering a choice of games.

 

What is the standard treatment (if there is one), and how do you prefer to play it?

 

Peter

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Your partner's treatment is standard though he only needs 5-4. If I am 5224 with no slam interest I will just transfer and bid 3NT probably. But 5314 definitely transfer and bid 3, you could belong in a 5-2 spade fit, 4-3 or 5-3 heart fit, club fit, or notrump.

 

With Justin we play transfers there, 2 shows clubs, 3 shows diamonds. It works really well.

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You need to be flexiable there and allow both looking for club game and looking for slam, if partner is intrested in slam he can bid something new like 3D or 3S, if he have no support he will bid 3NT. i think you can bid somehting like 4C with hands that is both max and looks like good for play in 5C rather then 3NT.
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My agreement works like this: Could be a slam try, but could also be search for best game. If it is a search for the best game, responder will have virtually all of his points in the two shown suits. Opener assumes that it is the search for game. Of course if he fits the major there is no problem he accepts that major. If he does not fit the major he bids 3N with adequate values in the unbid suits, or supports the minor if not. It's still possible, after this support of the minor, to play in the 5-2 major fit at game level. Presumably if responder is interested in slam he is pleased to hear that opener's side suit values in at least one suit are minimal, thus putting more values into the chosen minor.

 

This seems like a reasonable agreement but it doesn't come up terribly frequently and I have too little experience to really say how well it works.

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It certainly doens't promise more than 4 clubs.

 

Some play it as ostensibly a help-suit trial but that's not standard. Standard is GF.

 

Personally, I would never introduce a minor suit with some slam interest, but that's a personal thing. I'm sure you could construct a non-slamish hand with which introducing a minor suit is the percentage action, especially at IMPs.

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An agreement about this auction is also important for the auction 1N 2H 2S 3N . If you tend to bid out shape (so 3C doesn't promise more than GF and more than 4 clubs), the 3N action suggests a balanced hand. When I have agreed that style with a partner, I am a lot more likely to pass 3N with 3-card spade support as opener.
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Game forcing 5-4 or better. Any game forcing bid that suggests a minor suit game must have fairly serious slam interest.

 

I prefer that opener now explicitly bid the major if he prefers that strain (over 3M, we should be able to comfortably cue bid). 3N would show inappropriate value placement (other suits well stopped), and other bids confirm the minor fit. This still keeps 3N in the picture when we do not have the major suit fit and slam interest is minimal.

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In the original post it says: "slam invitational, at least 5-4 in spades and diamonds" for the 3 rebid. Don't know if this is a typo or if transfer advances was implied.

 

Anyway, to me a minor at 3-level is natural and tends to be slamish. A cuebid by opener now shows 4+ support in the minor suit and a doubleton in the major. 3 in the major is preference, denying support for the minor. A raise to 4m shows support to both suits (3-4/3-5). With a non-fitting hand, opener signs off in 3NT.

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In an auction like 1NT(15-17)-2H-2S-3C, what kind of hand does the 3C bidder show?

I believe in never looking for 5 of a minor in a non-competitive auction in MPs.

Therefore, when playing pairs, it has to be at least slightly slammish.

In IMPs, it's usually just choice of games unless I bid something obviously slammish later.

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