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2 step question


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4th seat, all red, MPs.

 

You hold Qxxxx AKQx -- 98xx

 

(1D) - p - (1NT) - x

(2D) - 2S - (3D) - ?

 

Question 1. Your bid here?

 

I chose 3S at the table, so now it's this:

 

(1D) - p - (1NT) - x

(2D) - 2S - (3D) - 3S

(4D) - x - (p) - ?

 

Question 2. Now what?

 

Edit: I screwed up the auction a bit. Fixed now.

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Of course pard's hand is better than that, having made a freebid, but can you be so optimistic as to give him no club wastage?

my point is that if you can reasonably put him on a 0-count that has play for game and he should have much better than a 0 count then it seems silly not to bid game

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1. You have to bid 4. Its possible you might be off 3 clubs and a trump, but its more likely you aren't, or they lead a diamond and pard takes a quick pitch off those hearts.

 

2. This sounds like something from an appeal. I'm pulling to 4, even if the double took 5 minutes. Some will say, "...bla bla...if you judged your hand worthy of only 3, you have to pass....bla bla". I think thats hogwash.

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