jim420 Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 I was West. The following was what NS held in one hand. [hv=d=e&v=b&n=sk8ha843d754ck985&s=saq764hk9dakcaj73]133|200|Scoring: IMPBiddingW N E S- - P 1♠P 2♣ P 6NTP P P Opening lead: ♦3Result: 6NT+1+12.2 IMP to NS[/hv] After south's response of 6NT, I made a query. His response was "21 P". His profile provided no bidding information. Any reason for this bid? What do u think is the ideal bidding sequence here? Additional note: All pairs who missed the slam lose IMPs. There are, however, only 2 tables that bid slam on this hand. The other was 6♠+1, 11.6 IMPs and they at least bid less surprisingly than this one... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apollo81 Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 A more normal auction, using 2/1: 1♠-1NT3♣-4NT5♣-5♦6♣-pass 4NT: RKC5♣: 0 or 35♦: ask for ♣Q6♣: "no" Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 1S-1N3C-4C4N-5H6C Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 "Any reason for this bid?" He felt like he could make it? I think it's a reasonable, though aggressive bid with a pickup partner playing some type of Standard American, where 2C shows 10+ hcp and 4+ (usually 5+) clubs. I would have opened 1NT on this hand, and it would have gone 2NT-3C-3D-3NT. The 2C response to 1S provides valuable information to the strong hand, so my choice wouldn't have worked out well. Perhaps I'm wrong, but the tone of your post implies a suspicion of cheating. If so, I don't think the suspicion is justified by the bidding. Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hotShot Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 Lets see south has 3/4 aces and the K in the suit where the ace is missing, so opss won't have 2 top trick if he plays NT. He has 21 HCP and a semi balanced hand. His partner just showed 10+ HCP 2-♠ and has the ♣ suit. If not playing 2/1 2♣ shows 4+ or 5+♣. So there is a club fit and combined 31+ HCP. So you expect the normal contract to be 6♣, now if you want to score better than average, you need to bid NT. You don't need to to bid Blackwood because you already know that opps don't have 2 quick top tricks. If your partner is strong enough he will find 7NT. Sometimes 6NT won't make, but many if not most hands that make 6♣ will make 6[NT] too. 6[NT] is an excellent bid. Unfortunately north is not bidding 7NT although holding 3 important key cards. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cinvent77 Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 The problem in a pick-up partnership is that opener cannot be sure that a rebid of 3C is understood as forcing (which is a good treatment not playing 2/1 GF imho). I like the style of bidding 6NT directly. It's most probably right, doesn't give too much information to the opponents, and avoids all possible disasters. So, the best sequence is: 1♠ - 2♣ - 6NT :P Vincent Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 Comment 1: I don't think it makes much sense to talk about an ideal bidding sequence. The jump to 6NT certainly looks weird. Then again, if I knew that my partner would advance 2♣ on a hand like that I might very well jump to 6N as well. (Lord knows that we don't have any chance at a reasonable auction) Comment 2: Playing a normal system, Justin's auction looks convincing Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 I was West. The following was what NS held in one hand. [hv=d=e&v=b&n=sk8ha843d754ck985&s=saq764hk9dakcaj73]133|200|Scoring: IMPBiddingW N E S- - P 1♠P 2♣ P 6NTP P P Opening lead: ♦3Result: 6NT+1+12.2 IMP to NS[/hv] After south's response of 6NT, I made a query. His response was "21 P". His profile provided no bidding information. Any reason for this bid? What do u think is the ideal bidding sequence here? Additional note: All pairs who missed the slam lose IMPs. There are, however, only 2 tables that bid slam on this hand. The other was 6♠+1, 11.6 IMPs and they at least bid less surprisingly than this one... Let's suppose 2♣ shows 11+ hcp, 4++ clubs, and responder was a little frisky. wouldn't 6NT with an unfamialiar partner be the right move? I'm not going to play games tyring to get to 7. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 Maybe his wife was screaming at him to get off the computer and he needed to quickly finish the hand? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 angry wife > all Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jim420 Posted February 17, 2007 Author Report Share Posted February 17, 2007 angry wife > all lol speaking of cheating, i'm really half-suspicious of that at the time of playing. Glad that there's some reason for this bid...thx all for ur advice In fact, my p left the table in fury after 2 tricks. 4 people entered the E seat and they all played for < 1 min and left. North kept calling South to claim but he didn't so this drggged on and on for at least 10min.. (thus ruling out the angry wife phenomenon :) ) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DWM Posted February 19, 2007 Report Share Posted February 19, 2007 In fact, my p left the table in fury after 2 tricks. 4 people entered the E seat and they all played for < 1 min and left. North kept calling South to claim but he didn't so this drggged on and on for at least 10min.. (thus ruling out the angry wife phenomenon B) ) You are forgetting the 'Ok, make this your last hand then do the dishes' part of angry wife. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
brianshark Posted February 19, 2007 Report Share Posted February 19, 2007 A hand similar to this happened to me just last night. The bidding went 1♠-2♦-6NT. The full deal and bidding was: [hv=d=s&v=n&n=s2ht2daq8543ck432&w=skjt63hj97543dt7c&e=s75haq86d92ct9876&s=saq984hkdkj6caqj5]399|300|Scoring: IMPsSouth Dealer:1♠-P-2♦-P6NT-Dbl-P-PRdbl-P-P-P[/hv] I was West. My double was mainly based on my ♠ holding... and the principle behind not making stupid bids. My lead was the normal 4th highest ♥. The opponents made a comment during the deal whether we played messanger (which I thought was a little uncalled for) as the contract drifted off 5. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted February 19, 2007 Report Share Posted February 19, 2007 "The opponents made a comment during the deal whether we played messanger (which I thought was a little uncalled for) as the contract drifted off 5." I think "totally unacceptable" is a better description than "a little uncalled for". Here 6NT is a terrible bid, and redouble is just plain weird. Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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