jvage Posted February 15, 2007 Report Share Posted February 15, 2007 With none vul you have:KTAJxxKxxQ9xx The bidding goes (only your side bidding):1♦ - 1♥2NT - 4NT5NT - 6♦6♥ - ? 2NT was 18-19, 4NT quantitative and 5NT "pick a slam". Do you pass or bid 6NT? John Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted February 15, 2007 Report Share Posted February 15, 2007 I'm not sure I agree with 4NT. However, can 6H be better than 6NT? Partner sounds as if he has a maximum 3 good hearts and a doubleton - say Axxx KQ10 AQxx Kx (assuming this is consistent with your methods). We aren't making either slam opposite that hand, but 6H has more chances than 6NT. If he is 2344 (is that a 1D opener?) we should be 6C... He has to have hugely good hearts to bid like this, so to put it another way I'm not sure when 6NT is going to be better, so I probably pass. But the fact that when I write down nice 19-counts that are pretty much ZP for any slam implies that 4NT was maybe a bit aggressive. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jvage Posted February 15, 2007 Author Report Share Posted February 15, 2007 Your points are valid Frances, but the hand you gave is only 18hp (not 19, any of the 3 missing J's would drastically improve slam-chances) and slam (at least 6♥) got good play (hearts 4-2/3-3 and either diamonds 3-3 or a squeeze). Had partner had a fifth (he could even had a sixth in our methods) diamond, slam would be almost laydown....... Concerning the methods, partner would always open 1♣ with 4-4 in the minors. John Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted February 15, 2007 Report Share Posted February 15, 2007 If partner can't have 4 clubs, then I think to offer choice-of-slams excluding diamonds, he must be 4342 and I pass 6H in case the club ruff is the 12th trick. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted February 15, 2007 Report Share Posted February 15, 2007 I agree with Frances that 4NT was aggressive. I have to think I don't understand. Partner asked me to pick a slam, I picked 6♦ and then he corrected to 6♥. I think this means he wanted me to pick between 6♥ and 6NT all along. I don't mind playing in 4-3 fits, but if partner was offering me a choice, the SPADE TEN and CLUB 9 might sway me to try 6NT. On the other hand, sounds like we have at most 32 hpc (and maybe 31) with no eight card fit and no five card suit (partner will not have 5♦ and pull 6♦) so we may very well need to trump something in partners hand to give slam a chance. So I guess I might pass now that I have thought about it, but my intial reaction is to "accept" his offer to put him in 6NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted February 15, 2007 Report Share Posted February 15, 2007 I think pard has a 3442 and skipped heart support to show his 18-19. I'm gonna let things stay in 6♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jvage Posted February 16, 2007 Author Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 Frances almost gave partners exact hand (he had A9xx, KQ9, AQTx, Kx). With both hearts and diamonds breaking 3-3 6♦ and 6♥ were both easily making, I bid 6NT and that had almost no play :D I discussed the hand with partner, he agreed with my 4NT, we both felt his 5NT was more agressive with minimum high-cards and no 5-card-suit. Maybe he should have passed 6♦, but me not passing 6♥ was a big mistake. Partner, starting by saying he was very happy with my play in general( ;) ), believed it was my biggest error during the weekend. As is commented by others partner is marked with 4342 pattern and strong hearts. He would have bid 6♥ instead of 5NT with 4 hearts, passed 6♦ with 5 diamonds and bid 6NT with 3343. The clubruff gives the extra trick needed for slam to make (if diamonds are not breaking it gives the extra trick needed to make a squeeze possible). John Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 For what it is worth, I'm also not liking 4NT. If anything, I'll overstate my diamond length a tad and make a slam move in diamonds. A nice auction, if available, if for 1min-P-1MAJ-P-2NT-P-3♦ to be a slam try in Opener's minor, whatever 3♣ meaning you use. Here, this has merit because the "best" shortness is in spades. (Best, because Opener's possible shortness in clubs, say Ax or Kx, ruins your queen. But, Axx(x) in spades looks nice.) Partner can be 5332, right? Moyse would not mind 4-3 either, especially if AQJx. Anyway, partner has a minimum, but he is relatively primed out. (Only external Aces and Kings, internal Queens). He can visualize a likely shortness in spades, because you do not have a fourth spade, probably, making his club King working and all kinds of good stuff. With AQJx in diamonds, he is very well placed. With AQ10x, he might feel lucky, you might be lucky, and life might be good. Or, he might resign to 3NT and save a level. Give partner a slightly different hand, perhaps xxx in spades and AQ of clubs, a 4-4 spade split, and nine tricks might be the limit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted February 16, 2007 Report Share Posted February 16, 2007 It would be nice to bid 3♦ over 2NT as a natural slam try. Unfortunately everyone plays transfers over 2NT and opener will always accept a 3♣ transfer to diamonds, so you can't get a cuebid or an "unsuitable for slam" 3NT signoff out of partner. Oh well, too bad for the transfer method which is "obviously superior" to natural forcing calls or NMF. :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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