Trinidad Posted February 10, 2007 Report Share Posted February 10, 2007 A few days ago, I saw the following start of an auction (EW were playing a form of 2/1 GF): W -(N) -E -(S)1♦ (1♥) X (2♥)3♣ (P) 4♠ (P) What does East's 4♠ bid mean? What should West bid with: ♠ J♥ 2♦ AJ763♣ AQ9843 Thanks, Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted February 10, 2007 Report Share Posted February 10, 2007 Depends upon your agreements. For me, this would be RKCB for diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted February 10, 2007 Report Share Posted February 10, 2007 In "standard" 2/1, the double shows excatly four spades. The only meaning if 4♠ I can think of would be a slam try for clubs with very strong spades. Of course, if you have the popular agreement that the double denied spades, 4♠ could be a splinter for clubs. Anyway, I would bid 5♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted February 10, 2007 Report Share Posted February 10, 2007 edit Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted February 10, 2007 Report Share Posted February 10, 2007 Without discussion this is a clear emphatetic splinter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted February 10, 2007 Report Share Posted February 10, 2007 What's that? A fancy word for a stripe-tail ape splinter? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted February 10, 2007 Report Share Posted February 10, 2007 You guys are missing the point. Pard has a strong hand with spades and was afraid opener might misunderstand 1♠ for a negative free bid and pass :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Double ! Posted February 10, 2007 Report Share Posted February 10, 2007 Without discussion this is a clear emphatetic splinter. This is a very unusual sequence of bids. In responding to this thread, may we rule out partner showing a weak hand with long (7 or 8) spades? I am not sure about 4S being a splinter in support of hearts. That would mean that the opps have like 11 spades between them as well as a heart fit. (what is wrong with that picture?) The other issue that occurs to me is the question of what kind of hand partner can have to justify making a splinter in spades after having initially implied spades via a negative double as well as the fact that partner didn't take a different initial action (such as a 2-club bid) during the previous round? Another possibility as previously suggested is that 4S shows a slam try in clubs with strong spades (like AKxx). If such is the case, then I suspect long but not strong clubs, something like a 4-6 hand. (In each attempt to hypothesize potential hands for partner, I am also looking at the fact that the opps bumped the bidding all the way up to the 2-level. Where are all of the hearts?) Another possibility that I can think of would be some type of hand with perhaps 3 hearts and prime support cards that partner didn't initially consider to be good enough to be GF hand until re-evaluated after opener's 3C rebid. I'm wondering if partner has something like ♠ Axxx, ♥xxx, ♦ K or Q, ♣ KJxxx, or ♠ Axx, ♥ xxx, ♦ x, ♣ KJTxxx. Whatever, when in doubt, i follow the axiom that all strange (if not impossible) bids are forcing one round. To bid 5 vs. 6 clubs? Do I have the courage of my convictions? Don't ask :) DHL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted February 10, 2007 Report Share Posted February 10, 2007 Hey Don, opps bid hearts as I read it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MFA Posted February 11, 2007 Report Share Posted February 11, 2007 X of 1♥ showed exactly 4S (given standard agreements). So 4♠ cannot be natural but must agree clubs. He bypasses hearts, so he probably doesn't have a heart cuebid. I have a good hand, so I'm happy to accept partner's slam try. 6♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted February 11, 2007 Author Report Share Posted February 11, 2007 X of 1♥ showed exactly 4S (given standard agreements). So 4♠ cannot be natural but must agree clubs. He bypasses hearts, so he probably doesn't have a heart cuebid. I have a good hand, so I'm happy to accept partner's slam try. 6♣.I pretty much agree with this analysis. The only thing is that I think that East can still be aiming for a diamond slam (rather than clubs). But in that case he will correct 6♣ to 6♦. Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fred Posted February 11, 2007 Report Share Posted February 11, 2007 In the absense of any agreement I would assume 4S is natural and non-forcing, perhaps a hand like: AKQ10xxxxxxQxx Where 4S could easily be the only game contract that has a chance. Sure you could bid 3S with a hand like this to suggest a strong 4-card suit and the possibility of playing 4S if a 4-3 fit exists, but by jumping to 4S you are stating that your spades are super-strong and that partner should seriously consider passing with only xxx of spades (or even xx!) in spades. Quote (from me): "If an undiscussed bid can be natural then it is natural". Fred GitelmanBridge Base Inc.www.bridgebase.com Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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