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need explanation for a very basic sequence


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1 - 1

2 - 2

 

Is responder's 2H rebid forcing?

 

One of the tenets is that new suits by an unpassed responder are forcing. There is an exception, where opener rebids 1N and responder bids 2 of a lower ranking suit (and assuming you're not playing new minor force. If you are, well, 1x - 1S - 1N - 2H still serves as an example showing a minimal response)

 

What about this sequence? Is 2H showing a decent hand, or a minimum with 5-4 majors? My instinct is that this should be forcing, as responder could easily pass 2 with a bad hand despite having 5-4 majors, but I want to hear some opinions from some better players than myself.

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Forcing. Obviously it helps to be playing reverse flannery. But one of the basic tenets I apply is that we won't keep the auction alive to improve the partial. Thus, if responder is weak with 5-4 majors (and even 5-5), he will pass 2]. Having to jump to 3 to force is very space consuming and also makes constructive bidding much more difficult.

 

That being said, some people play an artificial 2 in this sequence to force and then 2 might be non-forcing. Then you have to ask if 1 - 1 - 2 - 2 is forcing or not and artificial or not. Best bet is to simply play it as natural forcing without further agreement.

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Without any special agreements, 2 is forcing in the given sequence: invitational or better, at least 5-4 in the majors. If you have to choose one or the other, 2 is more valuable as a natural and forcing than as a pass/correct bid ... the hands that still have game interest take priority over the ones that just want to play a different partscore.

 

Some players adopt the following sequences (or something similar) to try to gain flexibility/accuracy:

 

1 : 1

2 : 2 = Weak with both majors (pass/correct)

 

1 : 1

2 : 2! = artificial and F1 (functioning very much like NMF)

 

This enables responder to show the weak + hands and have a way to bid stronger hands effectively as well.

 

Susan

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The bandaid that 1C - 1S - 2C - 2H can be non-forcing only works in that particular sequence. There are still problems with 1D - 1S - 2C and 1D - 1S - 2D. Responder cant make a cheap temporizing bid.

 

For new players, just accept that its forcing. Its really an unsolveable problem unless you play reverse flannery.

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This is an easy to remember rule: (Guess it was invented yet by E. Culbertson)

 

Responders new suit is 100% forcing except opener's rebid is 1NT.

After 1NT you should play NMF or CBS.

 

If your partner insists, you can make other agreements. But I wouldn't accept. :P

 

Al

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I recommend responding 1 on hands like:

 

Qxxxx

KJxx

x

xxx

 

In principle one should then also play 1 - 1 - 1NT - 2 as this hand type, but since most play N-way NMF anyway this is no problem.

I think this is a very poor idea, especially for beginning players who want to learn standard bidding.

 

Bidding your best suits first may be boring and old-fashioned, it has a lot going for it.

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Agree with Han. On that particular hand you're quite happy passing a 2 rebid anyway. A hand like

 

Qxxxx

KJxxx

xx

x

 

would be more interesting: I think it's still normal to bid 1, but there is a good argument for 1.

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