Tola18 Posted January 16, 2007 Report Share Posted January 16, 2007 In SAYC.1D - 2NT is natural inviting, and good 11-bad 13. Yes? And after it. If opener is minimum she can surely pass. But what is it if she rebids? 1D - 2NT, 3D? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted January 16, 2007 Report Share Posted January 16, 2007 According to the ACBL SAYC Booklet the 2NT response to 1♣/1♦ shows a balanced 13-15 HCP and is game forcing. Paul Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted January 16, 2007 Report Share Posted January 16, 2007 In SAYC.1D - 2NT is natural inviting, and good 11-bad 13. Yes? And after it. If opener is minimum she can surely pass. But what is it if she rebids? 1D - 2NT, 3D? Hi, assuming, you play 2NT over 1D as bal. with inv. strength, denying a 4 card mayor and a 6 card clubs suit, which is not SAYC, but fairlystandard: If opener rebids his suit, this simply showsa min. opener with no interest in game at all. Responder did describe his hand fairly completeand is it up to opener to place the contract.Opener knows, that responder will have at least2 cards in diaomond and most of the time responderwill look at 3 or 4 cards in diamonds. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tola18 Posted January 16, 2007 Author Report Share Posted January 16, 2007 Oh, thanks both for your good answers. Ah, much common but not SAYC official standard? Well, dispyte nr 2 thereby also decided. (Sorry Pard nr 2!). :rolleyes: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mr1303 Posted January 16, 2007 Report Share Posted January 16, 2007 Just to confuse the issue. Mike Lawrence in his conventions CD recommends that the only non-forcing bid after 1m pass 2NT is pass. In other words 1D 2NT 3D is forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted January 16, 2007 Report Share Posted January 16, 2007 Not unreasonable, particularly at matchpoints. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted January 16, 2007 Report Share Posted January 16, 2007 "Mike Lawrence in his conventions CD recommends that the only non-forcing bid after 1m pass 2NT is pass. In other words 1D 2NT 3D is forcing." Not the usual treatment, where I play, which isn't to say it's bad. Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted January 16, 2007 Report Share Posted January 16, 2007 What is Lawrence's recommendation regarding opening 1m? Will he do it with a distributional (e.g. 1-2=6-4) 10-11 HCP, or does he recommend opening 2♦ or 3♣ with these? If you can open these 1m, then you need to be able to pull 2NT, because the majors are likely to be wide open. But 11 opposite 11 is not generally enough for any game, so you have to be able to stop. But if you need a full 12-13 HCP to open in a minor, this is less likely to be a problem, and then opener's rebid can be treated as forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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