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How to play the right slam


Miron

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Last evening we had a nice board - that we failed to bid.

[hv=d=s&v=b&n=sakxhxdxxxcakqjxx&s=shkqj10xxdakxxxcxx]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

The bidding went all bad but after the board we had a discussion how should we bid.

I would appreciate any ideas.

 

Here is mine:

1 - 2 (GF on or 6+, 10-12)

2 (GF even against long clubs, 5-4)

Now the 2 has a lot of information: The 1 bidder doesn't have as nice hearts as are his clubs (we bid 3 with really nice hearts). The diamonds have no future - the 1 bidder has to have at least five of them with a lot of honors and if he has them, than 6 will be lay down as well). He should therefore now go for club slam:

1 - 2

2 - 4 (RHCB)

4 (here 1) - 4NT (Any other values?)

5 (K) - 6

 

PS: We played 6:

1 - 2

2 - 2

3 - 3[NT]

4 - 6

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Hi,

 

playing a system close to SAYC

 

1H .... - 2C

2D .... - 2S (1)

3D (2) - 4D (3)

4H (4) - 4NT (5)

5H (6) - 6D (7)

 

(1) 4th suit forcing, inv.+

(2) 5-5

(3) natural and forcing, the

alternative would be 4C,

but having found a 5-3

fit, I dont think I will bid 4C

(4) cue

(5) RKCB

(6) 2 withouth the Queen

(7) the alternative would be, to bid

6C as a suggestion to play

5NT would be to play

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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1-3-3-4-4-4N-5-5-6?

 

P.S. NOW you tell me!

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Our way to 6 (yes, we made it <_<, but with a lot of mistakes :)))

 

1

2 (GF or good 6card)

2 - 4 card, no extras promised

2 - GF

3 - that was a mistake :), the only bid that promises no extra length

4 - do something

4 - cuebid

4[NT] - Blackwood

5 - 2 out of 5 (obviously interested in diamonds :))

6 - let's hope he passes this :)

 

normally we could end in diamonds or notrump

1-2

2-2

3-4 (3 promises 5-5 or more, 4 is a slam try)

4-4

4NT-5 (2 from 5 without the queen of )

6 - and now I think that I COULD bid 6NT on the assumption that along with my 8 black tricks, 4 tricks can come from either red suit.

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and what about this way - in 2/1 and quite natural:

 

1 - 2

2 - 3

3 (or 3) - 4NT

6

 

2 - 2/1

3 - 6 good clubs, nonminimum 2/1 (2, 2NT or 3NT bids are available for hand with bad clubs or minimum)

3 - OK I have 6-5 in reds so in theory 3 looks better (can bid 4 after 3NT), but I prefer 3 with actual hand

anyway opener didn´t show any extras in strenght yet

4NT - quantitative with spade stopper; this bid very strongly implies solid clubs (could have bid 3NT instead); its not necessary to raise with 3 small

6 - well partner, I believe in Your bidding

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Three possible ways to reach a slam:

 

1 2

2 3

3 4

 

1 2

2 3

4

 

1 2

3

 

Should be pretty easy to bid 6 in any of these auctions now. All that's required is to support pard when the time is right and not be stubborn to insist in one's own suit :)

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Three possible ways to reach a slam:

 

1 2

2 3

3 4

 

1 2

2 3

4

 

1 2

3

 

Should be pretty easy to bid 6 in any of these auctions now. All that's required is to support pard when the time is right and not be stubborn to insist in one's own suit :D

OK, ok. I wrote it before: How to play slam, but not 6, that are impossible to fulfill.

I assume that the 2nd bidding could work.

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With Arend our auction might be something like:

 

1H - 2C

3D (extras, at least 5-5 with good suits) - 4D

4H - 4NT

5H - 6C

pass.

 

I think that 6C should be to play because clubs has been bid naturally. Else responder can bid 6NT, which happens to be the best spot. At least it is clear that responder will not bid 6D after he discovers that we are missing a keycard plus the queen.

 

Interesting hand. I was wondering if 1H-2C-3D-4NT should be keycards, I think it should not (but strong balanced). It took me a while to see that 6H is very poor after a club lead.

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