how to bid this hand

[jim420]

Here goes

 

[hv=d=e&v=e&n=sk6hkj42dcqjt7532&w=sjt85h86d7542c964&e=sq743hq9753dkj6ck&s=sa92hatdaqt983ca8]399|300|Scoring: IMP

Bidding:

W N E S

- - Pass 1NT

Pass 3NT Pass 6NT

Pass Pass Pass Pass

 

Opening lead: ♠J

Result: 6NT+1

+11.6 IMP to NS[/hv]

 

I was north. Just when I thought my raise to 3NT based on the long suit (better than 5♣) was rather pushy as a signoff, the bidding has gone up to 6NT...and he made it (even though I disconnected halfway through trick 2 due to poor internet connection, as my sig says, lol)

 

Is there any rational justification of this bidding sequence or is it just luck?

[pbleighton]

"Is there any rational justification of this bidding sequence or is it just luck?"

 

Just luck. A 1NT bidder should NEVER bid after pd has bid 3NT.

 

BTW, what is your NT range? Even if it is 16-18, the hand looks too strong for 1NT. I don't mind bidding 1NT with a 6 card minor suit, but I would have opened 1D. The auction would go 1D-2C(forcing for one round)-3D(decent 6 card suit, forcing to game)-3NT.

 

Peter

[inquiry]

Such an auction (1N-3N-6N) does not exist in expert play (unless 1NT or 3NT is some very funny non standard agreement). If you REALLY wanted to be lucky, you would have bid 7C or 7NT.. after whihc expect the director shorly.

 

The problem here is south is too strong for 1NT. I say this EVEN IF you play 16-18 hcp rather than the much more popular 15-17. 18 with 8 controls and a great six card diamond is just soooo much stronger than a standard 1NT opening. Your partner got the equivalent of "buyers remorse" after opening 1NT, and realized 6NT would be laydown opposite many, many standard 3NT responses.

 

One reason 1NT is soo bad, 3NT is laydown opposite as little as xxx xx Kxxx xxxx (6D, three side aces), and when you didn't show interest in a major, he could just imagine the diamond fit.

 

Obviously a better way to bid south hand is to use an auction that shows a hand that is too GOOD for 1NT opening, and see how it goes. Not that opening 1D and jumping in NT is going to get you to this slam, thus explaining your nearly perfect 12 imp swing for bidding the vul slam (if it was 12.0 you would have probably been the only one to bid it).

[barmar]

While I agree with the other comments about the bad 1NT opening, I don't agree with your jump to 3NT in response to it. You have a 4-card major and a void, so you should be thinking about playing in a suit, not NT. You should start with Stayman to find out if you have a ♥ fit, in which case 4♥ should be a fine contract and 6♥ is a possibility. When opener bid 2♦ in response you then have a decision to make: jump to 3NT or show your nice ♣.

[P_Marlowe]

Hi,

 

6NT is ..., I am polite.

 

If this would be a regular partner,

I would ask him to stop those

kind of things, ... if he does

not, I would cancel the partnership,

at least give up any hope, that the

partnership will be fairly successful.

 

Oppossite a strong NT opener, you want to

be in game, i.e. 3NT is ok, after you have

check, if there exists a mayor suit fit.

 

You can also investigate slam via

3C ( natural and gameforcing) over

the 2D answer of the 2C stayman inquiry,

, ...but you do remember my words about

contract on the 6/7 level?

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[neilkaz]

Did South not see an ace when he opened 1NT with 4 aces and 18 HCP and basically 8 certain tricks with ♦ as trump ?

 

Anyhow..N's bidding opposite a 1NT opening is quite wrong as this 7-4-2 hand can make a slam and really doesn't belong in NT.

 

N should use stayman and then if 2♦ is the response, bid 3♣ to show long clubs with his 4 card major and at least a mild slam invite.

 

Some people play that 3♣ after Stayman might be a sign off or an invite, but I prefer it to be strong and 100% GF.

[mike777]

The bidding seemed fine until north passed 6nt, not sure why she did not bid 7nt with a max passed hand and long club suit?

[inquiry]

The bidding seemed fine until north passed 6nt, not sure why she did not bid 7nt with a max passed hand and long club suit?

Want partner to have four aces AND the club king (19 hcp?).. I think that is asking a bit much after a 1NT opening, don't you?

[mike777]

ya but not after the 6nt bid B)

 

After all partner did not open a strong 2D bid :)

[jim420]

Hi,

 

6NT is ..., I am polite.

 

If this would be a regular partner,

I would ask him to stop those

kind of things, ... if he does

not, I would cancel the partnership,

at least give up any hope, that the

partnership will be fairly successful.

 

Oppossite a strong NT opener, you want to

be in game, i.e. 3NT is ok, after you have

check, if there exists a mayor suit fit.

 

You can also investigate slam via

3C ( natural and gameforcing) over

the 2D answer of the 2C stayman inquiry,

, ...but you do remember my words about

contract on the 6/7 level?

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

no, this is not a regular partner, and not the same as the one in the 4♠-5 game i've posted, just a casual, random game at the MBC.

 

i posted this hand here becoz this is absolutely the most shocking hand (with the most shocking bidding and results i've seen so far) and wanted some opinion on what this is all about...

 

"buyer's remorse" of 1NT... :D

 

and of coz i remember ur words about the 6/7 level contracts ;)

 

thx very much for all the advice

[HeartA]

ya but not after the 6nt bid B)

I agree wholehearted ;) :D :(