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Whats your call?


jmc

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You are East white vs white in the second session of a pairs game where you are doing decently. You hear p open a precision 2D as west that is short in D and can be 4414, 4405, 4315 or 3415 with 11-15 HCP. Pass to you holding stiff d as folows:

 

AKT6432, A62, 2, 85

 

You bid 2NT to ask partners shape and strength and here LHO bid 5D. Partner doubles and you have not discussed what that means in this auction. Over relay intereference in general you play pass as first step double as second step etc. What do you bid and why?

 

jmc

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I doubt, that I had bid 2 NT konwoing that the opps have at least 11 diamonds between them.

Now I bid 6 Spade. But this depends a little on my mood, it is 60/40 with 5 Spade.

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Hi,

 

first of all, I wont pass, we have at

least 11 spades between us, ... and

I have not shown the support.

 

second, at least for me, a pass by partner

would have been forcing. 2NT has to show

at least inv.+ strength.

=> The double denys interest in anything

above.

 

This leaves 5S.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: You should at least have a firm agreement,

which seq. generate a forcing pass.

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I would think the normal meaning for double is "let's defend." Obviously this is not based on a trump stack, but it should tend to indicate a hand that is not suited to bid on. So in particular not a diamond void, not a lot of controls. I'd bid 5 anyway (when pd doubled he didn't know we have such a huge spade fit) but I'll let the double discourage me from 6.
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Well, my double was probably wrong. I loved my hand and not having discussed this sequence thought double would show a better hand. Looking back, I agree pass should be more encouraging. My hand was:

 

QJxx, Kxx, x, AKxxx

 

6S is cold as the clubs set up for a H pitch. We ended up with like 7 out of 17 mps, so others were either getting there or ops were sacking in 6d dbld and getting killed.

 

jmc

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If when partner bids 2N it means he holds a game interest hand or better then over 5D we have a F pass situation. Strikes me that double should show a losing D and pass none, or the reverse agreement.

 

You can alter the hand slightly with exactly the same values where passing to show a better hand as the poster suggested leads to 1 down in 6, eg; QJxx Kxxx x AKxx. Although a squeeze is possible this is no longer a very pleasing slam.

 

It is my feeling the guy with a bazillion S should bid slam as there are too many hands that offer a play. Maybe they will save in 7D

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