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Gadget hand. Some people have methods for these hands in particular. (i.e. any 4441, then later show strength) With no methods, I'm going to bid 3 and pretend I'm 4=1=3=5 or 4=0=4=5. If opener rebids 3 I will bid 4 splinter. If he bids 3NT, then I will pass. If he bids 3 (presumably stopper showing), I will bid 3NT. If he bids 3, then I will really be stuck. I will probably then bid 5.
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Gadget hand.  Some people have methods for these hands in particular.  (i.e. any 4441, then later show strength)  With no methods, I'm going to bid 3 and pretend I'm 4=1=3=5 or 4=0=4=5.  If opener rebids 3 I will bid 4 splinter.  If he bids 3NT, then I will pass.  If he bids 3 (presumably stopper showing), I will bid 3NT.  If he bids 3, then I will really be stuck. I will probably then bid 5.

We agree but since 3 is 100% GF, I slow the bidding down after 3 with 4 since a slam in may be possible.

 

Edit.. whereagles is correct in that 3 followed by 4 is probably a better method since bidding and rebidding really implies more than a 4 carder and could be lost.

 

Some people play that after 1NT a direct 3 shows this hand and it is perfect for this hand which wants to play a slam in any minor if no 44 fit is found, but which can give up other meanings to 3 or be wrong at times.

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Hi,

 

since this is a hand in the beginners forum,

I would suggest 3NT.

You have at most 32HCP between you, and

it will be a thin slam, ... and to make 6NT

a successfull bet, you need highcard strength.

 

You have 8 card fit in a minor, but without

special agreements, you have no simple

way to discover the fit.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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