Bid 2D over 1NT

[kgr]

Suppose you are both World class players. You play matchpoints. You agreed to open 5=5=4=2 (short clubs). And with 4-4 in the minors you open 1 Club.

You play 1NT 15-17 and the rest is common sense.

Bidding goes (opps silent):

MP's / All Vul

1C-1D

1H-1NT

2D

What hand do you think opener has?

[the hog]

1444 or 1435

[neilkaz]

I have to admit that I strongly don't care for that opening method.

 

Anyhow, before I can answer I need to ask if the pair is playing Walsh-type responses where 1♦ after 1♣ denies a 4 card major unless GF strength (which obviously isn't shown by the 1NT rebid).

 

To all answering here, I must state the obvious and ask why the opps with at least 9 ♠'s haven't entered the auction.

 

.. neilkaz ..

[EricK]

To all answering here, I must state the obvious and ask why the opps with at least 9 ♠'s haven't entered the auction.

If one partner has, say Kxxx and the other xxxxx then there is often no reason why either of them would have had a bid at any time.

[kgr]

Anyhow, before I can answer I need to ask if the pair is playing Walsh-type responses where 1♦ after 1♣ denies a 4 card major unless GF strength (which obviously isn't shown by the 1NT rebid).

No Walsh-type responses

[bid_em_up]

Suppose you are both World class players. You play matchpoints. You agreed to open 5=5=4=2 (short clubs). And with 4-4 in the minors you open 1 Club.

You play 1NT 15-17 and the rest is common sense.

Bidding goes (opps silent):

MP's / All Vul

1C-1D

1H-1NT

2D

What hand do you think opener has?

I play this same method, and unlike neil, I highly prefer it. It did take some getting used to when I first started playing this way, however. When playing these methods, my partnerships will bid 4 card suits up the line, so a 1D response does not deny a four card major.

 

I would expect partner to be either 1-4-4-4 or possibly 1-4-3-5.

 

I also consider 2♦ to be non-forcing in this situation, if its of any relevance.

[kgr]

I wondered if you could bid this way with 1=4=4=4 and around 17 pts. At MP's 2D scores worse then 1NT so maybe 2D should show extra's here, inviting partner to bid 2NT or 3D with 8-9 pts?

[neilkaz]

Anyhow, before I can answer I need to ask if the pair is playing Walsh-type responses where 1♦ after 1♣ denies a 4 card major unless GF strength (which obviously isn't shown by the 1NT rebid).

No Walsh-type responses

1444 or 1435 possibly. As for strength, one would think it minimal unless agreed otherwise, but then again why give the opps more info to bid ♠ and why not leave it in NT at MP's if having only 3♦.

 

... neilkaz ...

[zasanya]

I wondered if you could bid this way with 1=4=4=4 and around 17 pts. At MP's 2D scores worse then 1NT so maybe 2D should show extra's here, inviting partner to bid 2NT or 3D with 8-9 pts?

Why not 3♦ instead of 2♦?Does 1NT automatically score more at mps than 2♦?

[lowerline]

I wondered if you could bid this way with 1=4=4=4 and around 17 pts. At MP's 2D scores worse then 1NT so maybe 2D should show extra's here, inviting partner to bid 2NT or 3D with 8-9 pts?

I would rather think the opposite. Partner passes with 14-15hcp and bids 2♦ with less. If you are likely to have the minority of the points, 2♦ might score better then 1NT...

 

Steven

[bid_em_up]

I wondered if you could bid this way with 1=4=4=4 and around 17 pts. At MP's 2D scores worse then 1NT so maybe 2D should show extra's here, inviting partner to bid 2NT or 3D with 8-9 pts?

If 1-4-4-4 with 17 hcp, you would/should show the big hand with fit by bidding 3♦ at either your first or second turn, imo. Alternatively, you might splinter in ♠ if that bid is available to you.