goodwintr Posted October 29, 2006 Report Share Posted October 29, 2006 The Revised Keri outline posted here (by The Hog and Inquiry) some time ago defined these sequences: 1NT-2C; 2NT-3C1NT-2C; 3C-3D as "asks for desc fragment." (2NT in the first sequence means minimum with six diamonds, 3C in the second means minimum with six clubs.) Responder's 3M after the same start is defined as "nat., F, 5-card suit." So, my question is: what exactly does "asks for desc fragment" mean? If it means opener is supposed to show a 3-card side suit in descending steps, when would responder do that rather than bidding 3M? I think I am missing something, and would genuinely like to know what it is. Can anyone help? [Pending the explanation, I find it simpler to define these 3C and 3D rebids as showing invitational 6-card-minor types, or possibly a signoff type in the case of 3D, signing off now. Responder thinks his suit is better than opener's suit.] T.L.Goodwin Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted October 29, 2006 Report Share Posted October 29, 2006 I belive "asks for desc fragment" means something like 1st step: 3 cards in highest unbid suit2nd step: 3 cards in middle unbid suit3rd step: 3 cards in lowest unbid suit So yeah, I think your interpretation is correct :) The fragment (instead of 3M) might be useful to set up a force below game, but I guess the_hog can explain this better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goodwintr Posted October 30, 2006 Author Report Share Posted October 30, 2006 It also occurs to me that there is something wrong with "3M shows five" in the above sequences: there isn't any strong responding hand that responds 2C in the first place, is there? An invitational hand with a five-card major might respond 2C: but that hand wouldn't want to bid 3M when opener shows a minimum with a 6-card minor, would it? I'm guessing that somebody defined responder's followups in these sequences before 1NT-2C; 2D-2NT was changed to "invitational, no interest in a major," not a strong hand as in original Keri. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goodwintr Posted October 30, 2006 Author Report Share Posted October 30, 2006 line two of that last post should say "strong hand with a five-card major" Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted October 30, 2006 Report Share Posted October 30, 2006 Well, it is true that responder's GF hands with 5 major go through transfer or the 2♠ relay. I guess the sequences after opener shows 6 in a minor are there just to fill steps :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goodwintr Posted October 31, 2006 Author Report Share Posted October 31, 2006 Thanks for the replies, Whereagles. Until somebody shows it to be otherwise, I am assuming the questioned sequences (which include 1NT-2C; 2M-2NT, not specifically mentioned above: the outline says it is forcing and asks for a doubleton) are vestigial -- remnants of original Keri that slipped through to "revised Keri," even though the revisions make them inapplicable. "Just filling the steps" is a little hard on those of us who are already having enough trouble absorbing the method . . . . T.L.Goodwin Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted October 31, 2006 Report Share Posted October 31, 2006 Well, you can always email Ron Klinger for explanations. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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