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[hv=d=e&v=n&s=saqj72hadk85ckj65]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]

 

1.

Pairs, vul against not. RHO opens 1, you decide to double (1NT is perhaps an alternative), pass from LHO and partner jumps to 4.

 

What do you expect opposite and what is your action now?

 

2.

Same hand. This time partner doesn't jump to 4 over your double. He bids 2 and you rebid 3NT (I suppose). Partner pulls to 4.

 

What do you expect opposite this time and what is your action now?

 

Roland

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Dealer: East
Vul: N/S
Scoring: MP
AQJ72
A
K85
KJ65
 

 

1.

Pairs, vul against not. RHO opens 1, you decide to double (1NT is perhaps an alternative), pass from LHO and partner jumps to 4.

 

What do you expect opposite and what is your action now?

I expect a weakish hand with lots of hearts. I pass. I'm not happy but, with spade shortness, partner should recognise that I may not be loaded with hearts.

 

2.

Same hand. This time partner doesn't jump to 4 over your double. He bids 2 and you rebid 3NT (I suppose). Partner pulls to 4.

 

What do you expect opposite this time and what is your action now?

 

Roland

 

I expect a reasonable hand with good 5+ hearts. I bid a natural 4NT but would prefer to jump to a quantative 4NT :) As the hand may fit poorly I'll be pessimistic about slam but go for the better matchpoint score.

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I expect both hands to have a long heart suit, with the second sequence showing a much better hand than the first.

 

I pass the first hand. Partner's hand may only play well in hearts.

 

I also pass the 2nd hand. Although I like the location of my cards (and partner will surely know where to place all the outstanding hcp) I think trying for slam is dangerous when partner has a reasonable expection to place me with some hearts. I am also worried about bad splits and it's MP. I know of very few partnerships where it's clear that 4NT is natural. Most would play this as some form of blackwood for hearts and I am sure in any indy, Paul wouldn't dare to make the bid intending it to be understood as natural, although I have no doubt that what he says is true for his regular partnerships.

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I would agree with the above views of what partner holds: in the first case, a lot of s... at least 6 of them... no more than weak 2 values. I pass. In the second one, I would not bid 3N: why jump? I doubled (which is not clear) beacuse I considered my hand too good for 1N (I assume). So why not tell partner: 2N suffices. Now over 3 (forcing) I can bid 3N to confirm I really mean it.

 

As it is, I pass, having completely end-played myself in the auction. I cannot tell if partner has x KQJxxx xxx Axx, opposite which slam is good, given the opening bid that virtually assures me that everything is onside, or x KJ9xxx Qxx Axx opposite which slam is horrible.

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Well, double of 1S is my 4th choice after Pass, Pass and 1NT. But you can make the hand slightly different such that I agree with the double and the question is still relevant!

 

On the first auction I expect long hearts not a huge amount in the way of high cards, and I pass.

 

On the second auction I expect much the same, but more high cards, and I pass. However, I would have bid 2NT over the 2S bid. Obviously forcing; why jump to 3NT without finding out if partner had a good hand with clubs?

 

But!

What do you think the auction

 

1S x P 3S

 

means?

 

I happen to have the agreement that a jump cue bid shows a game-force-from-strength in a major (of course, works better when they have opened something lower than 1S) which eliminates that hand-type from these auctions. That makes partner on the second auction 2-suited and in fact I would bid because I expect him to have only 5 hearts with a long minor suit.

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As to the immediate jump to 4 and 2 followed by 3NT and a pull to 4, I am merely telling you what happened at 2 tables. I agree that 2NT is the correct rebid over 2 by advancer.

 

I also agree with Mike when he says that 2NT will likely lead to 3 by advancer. Care to tell us what you will do next, then? You are all welcome to join of course.

 

Roland

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I also agree with Mike when he says that 2NT will likely lead to 3 by advancer. Care to tell us what you will do next, then?

Roland

I already told you :) 3N... with a firm glare, and folding my cards. If he bids over that, he has slam interest :)

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If he bids over that, he has slam interest :)

4, assuming that this is a cue bid for hearts. Is it, or must he bid 4? If the latter, it takes a lot of room away. I expect you to say that 4 sets hearts and that we have an easy 4 now.

 

But even so, how can he do any more than 4 after that?

 

Roland

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I was being silly... my reference to slam interest was if he bid in the face of my supposed-glare and card folding.

 

If he bid 3 over my 2N and then 4 over 3N, to me that is a suit.... he has and and an unwillingness to play 3N. Given that we are at mps, he must be interested in 6.... no-one pulls this 3N to play 5.

 

In that case, I have a HUGE hand. I am certainly going to small slam and the only question is rho's propensity to be psyching 1st seat favourable. I would check him out... if he is a solid citizen type, then I am going to settle for 6... if he is a junior, I may have 14 tricks in 7 :P

 

How to try is interesting, but probably irrelevant. 4 is cheap, and agrees , not . 4 doesn't show extra compared to 3, so why would I agree now after so firmly rejecting them the previous round?

 

How we go from there depends on his actions, but I am only going to invite grand, I doubt that I will be able to bid it myself... and remember, I'm only even doing this if rho looks like he might be a joker.

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I really don't like doubling here. I've advocated a pass on similar hands on different threads (generally greeted with disdain from many of you :P).

 

A. For a direct 4, I expect a non-slammish hand and usually 6 hearts, but the call can be made on a 5-5. Possible candidates:

 

x

KQxxxx

xx

Qxxx

 

or

 

x

KJxxx

QJxxx

xx

 

On the 1st, 4 looks like a normal spot. On the 2nd, 4 looks a little rough (3N is a lot better) but the horse has left the barn :(

 

B. For a delayed 4, I expect more honor strength and (perhaps) less shape:

 

x

KQJxxx

xxx

Axxx

 

or

 

xx

KQxxx

Axx

Axx

 

On the 1st, slam is very likely, taking finesses through the opener and drawing trump. I don't necessarily need a good break in clubs, since squeeze possibilities are excellent. On the 2nd, we have a preponderence of strength, but no real source of tricks; yet I still want to be in slam.

 

Conclusion:

 

If I doubled initially, I will pass over a direct 4.

 

If pard cue bids and then bids hearts, I will try 5N - pick-a-slam.

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Okay, he has bid 3 then 4. While this is not forcing, it is very strong: he could have bid 4 over 2N to sign off so he has slam interest.

 

While my length is disappointing, my positional values make passing too much of a risk.

 

My concern is to get to slam opposite KQJxxx and A in a minor but not to slam opposite KQxxxx and equal or better minors.. he won't have both minor Aces and good unless rho psyched, and we are going to be okay then anyway, since partner will know what to do.

 

I think that 4 is okay for now, and over 5 I'd bid 5 intending to pass 5.

 

Over 5, I have more of a problem: I think I'd settle it by making the conservative call of 5... I have already co-operated in the slam move so I don't think that this is a big underbid.

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Indeed, J makes all the difference. How on earth can we tell if he has that card or not? Now, if you are heading towards slam, will you consider 6NT as an option?

 

Roland

We can't tell if he has the J, but he can.. by looking.. and so long as we merely cooperate in a mild slam try, he will make the go/no-go decision withthe texture of his trump suit as a consideration. Does this mean that we will always miss slam when he lacks the J? No. But bridge is not a game of perfection.

 

As for contracts: no I will not consider 6N. It is far from clear that the field wil be getting to slam or that slam makes. So I look for the safest slam: I will take my 80% board if both make and avoid the 5% board if 6N fails and 6 makes.

 

Trump contracts offer more flexibility and I cannot come up with any realistic hand on which 6 fails and 6N makes. Now, if my partner is a poor card player, I'd choose 6N..... but if he is as good as me or close (which doesn't necessarily require much), then let him play this hand and dazzle me with his technique.

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[hv=d=e&v=n&n=s54hkqj873dq62ca8&s=saqj72hadk85ckj65]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv]

 

Yes, you want to be in slam, but only because J is there. Without it, the slam is very poor.

 

Scores at the 7 tables:

 

3 x 4 +2

1 x 3NT +3

1 x 6 =

1 x 6NT =

1 x 7 -1

 

Roland

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