allpass Posted October 4, 2006 Report Share Posted October 4, 2006 [hv=d=e&v=n&s=s9854h9763dqj5c62]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] RHO and I both pass, LHO opens 1♣ in 3rd seat and partner overcalls a natural (15-18) 1NT. I decided to pass and avoid a big number at vul IMPs, but was sorely tempted to respond 2♣. TIA Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted October 4, 2006 Report Share Posted October 4, 2006 If I play garbage stayman, which I dont,i would bid 2C, else why did I have agreedto play it? With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted October 4, 2006 Report Share Posted October 4, 2006 I would pass. There will be hands on which a 4-4 major will make 2 more tricks than will 1N, but there will not be that many of them. Plus partner will usually choose to double, opposite a passed hand, with, say, 4=4 in the majors, thus slightly diminishing the chances of a fit. And maybe there is a ♣ ruff or two lurking out there, given that we had a 3rd seat 1♣ opening on what sounds like a weak suit.. partner has a stopper, so he claims, and we hold QJx. Finally, there is a real risk that we will be in a very poor 2♦ contract. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted October 4, 2006 Report Share Posted October 4, 2006 I would pass opposite an opening 1NT rather than use Garbage Stayman, although I'd be open to argument about it. Opposite a 1NT overcall of a 1C opening I agree with mikeh: it is clear to pass, as the chances of a fit are much lower. I think it is marginal whether it is right to bid 2C and redouble if RHO doubles the 1NT overcall or to stick it out in 1NT doubled/allow partner to pull to 2C, which could be our fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben42 Posted October 4, 2006 Report Share Posted October 4, 2006 Finally, there is a real risk that we will be in a very poor 2♦ contract. With only 3♦ if you decide to bid 2♣ you have to bid 2♥ over 2♦ to secure a 4 - 3 fit. However with the 1♣ opener chances are that partner has some ♣ is increased, so I pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted October 4, 2006 Report Share Posted October 4, 2006 Clear pass imo: balanced, 3hcp, pottential tricks in NT. Why would I risk getting to a 4-3 fit which has no play? :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
1eyedjack Posted October 4, 2006 Report Share Posted October 4, 2006 Clear pass imo: balanced, 3hcp, pottential tricks in NT. Why would I risk getting to a 4-3 fit which has no play? :) Because you risk missing a 4-4 or 5-4 or 5-3 fit when 1N has no play, perhaps? It is a lottery. Either move could be right. I feel a Bridgebrowser poll coming on. Personally I pass. Incidentally, for those who bid, do you pass a 2D rebid by opener? It would seem clear that you have to pass if to convert to 2H is strictly to play. But suppose that opener is expected to convert to 2S with 3 Spades and 2 Hearts. What is the probability of your improving the contract (by removing 2D)? Bear in mind that you could be in a 3-2 Diamond fit if opener is 3-3-2-5. Bidding 2H (almost) guarantees that you play in a 7 card fit (perhaps opener could be 2-2 in the majors?) and ensures that you don't play in a 5 card fit in Diamonds, but you could have an 8 (9?) card fit in Diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted October 4, 2006 Report Share Posted October 4, 2006 Clear pass imo: balanced, 3hcp, pottential tricks in NT. Why would I risk getting to a 4-3 fit which has no play? :) Because you risk missing a 4-4 or 5-4 or 5-3 fit when 1N has no play, perhaps? If partner has a 5 card major (or a 6/card diamond suit) and bids 1NT over a 1C overcall, I need a new partner. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted October 4, 2006 Report Share Posted October 4, 2006 I pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdeegan Posted October 5, 2006 Report Share Posted October 5, 2006 :P I think you made a wise pass and for the right reason. "No double, no trouble" and "scared bridge is bad bridge". For another thing, your hand is not all that bad, and one NT can be a hard contract to defend. Finally, your tolerance for diamonds is not good enough imo. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
1eyedjack Posted October 5, 2006 Report Share Posted October 5, 2006 Clear pass imo: balanced, 3hcp, pottential tricks in NT. Why would I risk getting to a 4-3 fit which has no play? :P Because you risk missing a 4-4 or 5-4 or 5-3 fit when 1N has no play, perhaps? If partner has a 5 card major (or a 6/card diamond suit) and bids 1NT over a 1C overcall, I need a new partner. Oops, I missed the 1C. Agree that the 5 card major is out of the picture. But a 6 card Diamond suit? Hmm. Not sure I like the alternatives of 1D or double then D, if the hand otherwise qualifies for 1N Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted October 5, 2006 Report Share Posted October 5, 2006 My feeling tells me PASS is the right bid... All you need to make is pard to have a diamond honor and a few quick tricks. Your majors will act as "stoppers" :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sceptic Posted October 5, 2006 Report Share Posted October 5, 2006 Finally, there is a real risk that we will be in a very poor 2♦ contract. I would pass this hand because of the crap diamonds, BUT, if you did bid with this hand, and over 2 diamonds say you bid 2 hearts as a weak scamble for either major why is that not worth a risk if you are inclined to play Garbage stayman or as some call it ( just a passable bid that does not want to play in NT and is not garbage at all) ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
1eyedjack Posted October 6, 2006 Report Share Posted October 6, 2006 Clear pass imo: balanced, 3hcp, pottential tricks in NT. Why would I risk getting to a 4-3 fit which has no play? :rolleyes: Because you risk missing a 4-4 or 5-4 or 5-3 fit when 1N has no play, perhaps? If partner has a 5 card major (or a 6/card diamond suit) and bids 1NT over a 1C overcall, I need a new partner. Oops, I missed the 1C. Agree that the 5 card major is out of the picture. But a 6 card Diamond suit? Hmm. Not sure I like the alternatives of 1D or double then D, if the hand otherwise qualifies for 1N The more I think about it, the less persuaded I am that a 1NT overcall should deny a 5 card major any more than it should in an opening bid. If I heldS:AJH:AxxxxD:JxxC:AQTand RHO opened 1C, then I greatly prefer a 1NT overcall to either a 1H overcall or an initial double. Certainly when I think of all the things that partners do that might justify looking for another partner, overcalling 1N on this hand hardly ranks, even if you do disagree with the bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Apollo81 Posted October 9, 2006 Report Share Posted October 9, 2006 [hv=d=e&v=n&s=s9854h9763dqj5c62]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] RHO and I both pass, LHO opens 1♣ in 3rd seat and partner overcalls a natural (15-18) 1NT. I decided to pass and avoid a big number at vul IMPs, but was sorely tempted to respond 2♣. TIA Pass. Not close. -Noble Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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