dosxtres Posted September 15, 2006 Report Share Posted September 15, 2006 Hi all. What is 2NT after 1C 1N? Because 1N after 1C promises 8-10 HCP, does it changes de meaning of 2NT? With a 18-19 balance opener would bid 3N, so, 2NT is any kind of semi-balance or maybe a 4441 with 15-16 HCP? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted September 15, 2006 Report Share Posted September 15, 2006 The sequence is unusual, but I would say it shows an unbalanced hand with 15-16. It should be unbalanced because if it were balanced you would have opened 1NT B) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerardo Posted September 15, 2006 Report Share Posted September 15, 2006 For me, 18-19 bal. 3NT is the hand with long ♣ too strong for 3♣ rebid, but shy of 2♣ opening. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted September 15, 2006 Report Share Posted September 15, 2006 Irrespective of what it shows, :huh: more important is what it asks. :o .......if invitational, do you pass or accept the invitation based on your hand's 1NT range and values. ;) If forcing, what is your systemic response based on your hand B) Personally, I would use the 2NT rebid when my 1C bid came from a 4315 or 4405 or 3316 hand in the 14-15 hcp range. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted September 15, 2006 Report Share Posted September 15, 2006 Semi-gambling, with a decent six-bagger in clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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