Apollo81 Posted September 1, 2006 Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 MPs ♠AT7 ♥Q975 ♦AQ3 ♣T73 1♠*-(pass)-? *10-15 This is the bidding treatment you are using:- semi forcing 1NT response- 2♣ showing a GF with 3+♣ or a 3-card limit raise. Partner bids 2♠ if rejecting the LR and anything else (natural) if accepting. (2NT would show an accept with 6+♠) My preferred treatment on this hand is to respond 1NT, then:a) if partner bids 2♣, rebid 2NTc) if partner bids 2♦, rebid 3♠ (LR)d) if partner bids 2♥, rebid 4♥e) if partner bids 2♠, rebid 4♠ To what extent do you agree with the above responding strategy, given the bidding treatment you're playing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bid_em_up Posted September 1, 2006 Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 If I am understanding what you said correctly, the sequence 1♠-2♣ shows a GF with 3+♣ or a 3-card limit raise. Partner bids 2♠ if rejecting the LR and anything else (natural) if accepting. (2NT would show an accept with 6+♠). Isn't this what you have? Not sure why you want to go thru 1N forcing instead. (You cant be making a g/f raise on 12 opposite a possible 10, so must consider this hand as a limit raise initially.) If partner bids anything other than 2S, you're happy, right? If he rebids 2♠, the question becomes whether you pass, or bid 3♠ (has to be max limit raise, I think). Under your given system restraints, I would detract from my 3-4-3-3 shape and probably pass. The other consideration is whether or not 3♠ would promise the GF hand, in which case I definetely pass 2♠. There are several reasons I dont like the suggested rebids after 1N forcing. To name one, does 1♠-1N-2♥ promise anything extra? Partner can still be a 10 count, right? And yet you still bid 4♥? Yes, there is a double fit. Unfortunately, half your values are in a minor suit, which also detracts from the value of the hand.(I dont like 2N over a 2C response to 1N either, but thats another story). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben42 Posted September 1, 2006 Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 Looks like a 3-card limit raise to me, so I respond 2♣ in your system. Also in my system after such an opening bid, 2♣ = "any invitational hand" Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted September 1, 2006 Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 MPs ♠AT7 ♥Q975 ♦AQ3 ♣T73 1♠*-(pass)-? *10-15 This is the bidding treatment you are using:- semi forcing 1NT response- 2♣ showing a GF with 3+♣ or a 3-card limit raise. Partner bids 2♠ if rejecting the LR and anything else (natural) if accepting. (2NT would show an accept with 6+♠) My preferred treatment on this hand is to respond 1NT, then:a) if partner bids 2♣, rebid 2NTc) if partner bids 2♦, rebid 3♠ (LR)d) if partner bids 2♥, rebid 4♥e) if partner bids 2♠, rebid 4♠ To what extent do you agree with the above responding strategy, given the bidding treatment you're playing? I've seen better 12 counts. Opposite what might be a feather-weight opener, I'm classifying this hand as "limit raise". Consequently, I'd use the 2♣ gadget and pass 2♠. If I were to bid 1NT instead, then I must say you're either messing up things or forgot to tell us you have 2 types of limit raise. Why? Because you can't bid c): hand c) would have been bid 1♠-2♣. Unless, of course, you have 2 types of limit raises: a balanced one that goes 1♠ 1NT2x 3♠ and another, unbalanced, that goes 1♠ 2♣ If this is case, I really think you should swap the bids for LRs because a flat LR, if rejected, will often go down at the 3 level, whereas the unbalanced one survives it much better. As for cases a, d, e: a) this is the same as c), basically. Besides, I don't like twisting stuff into 3NT if pard could be unbalanced. Even in 10-15 openers, where responder is allowed a bit of masterminding. d), e) that is fine. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted September 1, 2006 Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 You didn't tell us the criteria for 1♠ 1N pass... Is there any risk that partner will pass 1N with a balanced 13 count, for example? If so, we have probably missed game. Anyway, if we have a way to treat this hand as a 3 card limit raise, and if we play light opening bids, I use my 2♣ gadget... isn't this hand one of the reasons we play the method? I think it is a basic and significant error not to stay within the bounds of your agreements... given the methods described, partner expects this hand to be bid via 2♣, so when you embark upon another route, you are actively misleading partner in a constructive auction.... very bad. Furthermore, your proposed follow-ups (assuming partner doesn't pass) seem weird to me. You are concealing A10x in ♠ if partner bids 2♣. Why? And what kind of hand do you show with 3♠ over 2♦? How is that sequence different from 1♠ 2♣ sequences? Using 2 sequences to show the same values is a fundamental systemic error.... the main obstacle to good bidding system design is the relative scarcity of available sequences compared to the number of hand-types to be shown, so using two responses to 1♠ to show the same handtype is extremely inefficient. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 1, 2006 Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 Hi, I would make a LR. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted September 1, 2006 Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 For me the issue is do I show this hand as a 3 card limit raise. I do have good 3 card trump support and it is in my range which for me is around 12-13 support points. The reason I hesitate is I wonder if this hand would play better in NT since I am 3433 shape. I assume partner may have a junky 10-12 hcp balanced hand with 5 spades for this auction. If I bid 1nt semiforcing we may be able to get out in 1nt rather than 2s in your style at MP? In any case I always wonder if these hand types play better in NT or in the 8 card major fit at MP? We somehow have to factor in less than perfect defense at MP also. xxxxx...Kxx...xx...AKx or something of this type? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted September 1, 2006 Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 MPs ♠AT7 ♥Q975 ♦AQ3 ♣T73 1♠*-(pass)-? *10-15 This is the bidding treatment you are using:- semi forcing 1NT response- 2♣ showing a GF with 3+♣ or a 3-card limit raise. Partner bids 2♠ if rejecting the LR and anything else (natural) if accepting. (2NT would show an accept with 6+♠) My preferred treatment on this hand is to respond 1NT, then:a) if partner bids 2♣, rebid 2NTc) if partner bids 2♦, rebid 3♠ (LR)d) if partner bids 2♥, rebid 4♥e) if partner bids 2♠, rebid 4♠ To what extent do you agree with the above responding strategy, given the bidding treatment you're playing? I think I agree with your continuations. If you pull a SF 1N response to 2x does it show strength? Or just shape? I am considering going to a variable 2♣ response like you play, howver one of the challenges I see is the hand like this, that wants to give one more push after a limit raise. The problem is 1♠-2♣-2x-2♠ will frequently end the auction when many suitable minimums offer a good play for game. I don't know if this is solvable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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