Trumpace Posted August 31, 2006 Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 [hv=d=e&v=e&n=st76hajt54d82ca94&s=sk54hkdajt96ckt76]133|200|Scoring: IMPLead: ♠2[/hv] You open 1♦ in the 2nd seat. Partner bids 1♥, you bid 2♣, partner bids 2♥ and your 2NT closes the auction. (E/W pass throughout). West leads the ♠2, you play low from dummy, East wins the ♠A and returns the ♠Q. What is the best line? (Hopefully, this is not a routine hand, as I am not able to figure out the best play) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted August 31, 2006 Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 I like following: take ♠K, unblock ♥K, exit a ♠. I expect ♠ to be 4-3 after the ♠2 lead. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AthosINT Posted August 31, 2006 Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 hello. I too will play my LHO for 4 ♠. So i d try this way : K♠, K♥, and 7♣ letting it ride (if clubs are 33 no problems, if they are 42, you may take H8 on your left, and H8xx too) . If RHO wins with an honor and lazily plays ♠ i may have a free finesse in ♥ or a trick developped in ♦. I am not sure this is the best line though...what if RHO plays a ♦ after your ♣ play ? still if KQ ♦ are stacked behind, it seems 2NT was doomed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted August 31, 2006 Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 Hi, my first question: why do we play 2NT,what about 2D, ... and if your partner insists on rebidding his 5 card suit, what about passing 2H?If I rebid 2NT, I would expect partner to raise to 3NT. Now to the play:Duck spades, if they continue, play aclub and play low from the table.See what gets returned and plan from there. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cnszsun Posted August 31, 2006 Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 We are playing 2NT only, with 6 tricks alreay from top, Supposing ♠ is 4-3 break, i will try to make two extra tricks from ♦. Win ♠K, play small ♦ to 8, then play another ♦ next round after winning return. I think we can handle whatever their return is. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trumpace Posted August 31, 2006 Author Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 Hi, my first question: why do we play 2NT,what about 2D, ... and if your partner insists on rebidding his 5 card suit, what about passing 2H?If I rebid 2NT, I would expect partner to raise to 3NT. It was with a pickup on BBO and this was the first hand... So bidding is probably not very optimal. (nor was the play :) ) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted August 31, 2006 Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 Hi, my first question: why do we play 2NT,what about 2D, ... and if your partner insists on rebidding his 5 card suit, what about passing 2H?If I rebid 2NT, I would expect partner to raise to 3NT. It was with a pickup on BBO and this was the first hand... So bidding is probably not very optimal. (nor was the play :) ) :) The "pickup" explains one bidding side not both, you may complain about partners bid, butshould also have a look at your bids. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SoTired Posted August 31, 2006 Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 similar to cnszsun... but duck 2nd spade (just in case), win 3rd spade, and then lead the small diam. We can't unblock the ♥K, yet, because of entry problems. Players who lead clubs are not counting tricks. We have 6 tricks (1s+2h+1d+2c=6), we need 8. Clubs will only get us 1 more, but diam will get 2 more. We don't have the entries to set up the hearts. We are not out of the water, because we have entry problems. After taking the 4th spade (we pitch a club), opps will likely lead a club. We capture an honor with ♣K and play ♦AJ. If LHO wins the 2nd diam and leads another club, we will be forced to take the club finesse. We need 8 tricks, but cannot lose more than 5. Our loser budget is full with 3s+2d. Bidding: North's 2H requires 6, but with 9 hcp and no minor preference, 2H rather than pass is not that poor a bid. South's 2N over 2H shows about 16-17 (some would say 15). South is lite, but has conpensating 10's. I would pass 2H, but 2N is not unreasonable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trumpace Posted August 31, 2006 Author Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 Hi, my first question: why do we play 2NT,what about 2D, ... and if your partner insists on rebidding his 5 card suit, what about passing 2H?If I rebid 2NT, I would expect partner to raise to 3NT. It was with a pickup on BBO and this was the first hand... So bidding is probably not very optimal. (nor was the play :) ) :) The "pickup" explains one bidding side not both, you may complain about partners bid, butshould also have a look at your bids. With kind regardsMarlowe I am not complaining about my partner's bidding. Nor am I saying I made the right bids. This post was about the play to 2NT. I gave the bidding to preempt ppl asking for the bidding... btw, what do you think 2NT would show? A doubleton heart (and some extras)?Or you think I bid too conservatively? How would you have bid it? Thanks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SoTired Posted August 31, 2006 Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 in 2/1 (or sayc)1m 1M 2N = 18-19so a 3rd round 2N by opener = 16-1714 is too lite so pass 2H is proper bid. With Responder showing 6-10 with 6h, your hand will play terrible in 2N. The only reason you make 2N is because responder had 9 hcp. Give responder something like ♠Jx ♥AJTxxx ♦xx ♣Jxx and 2N is hopeless, but 2H probably makes. Good Rule to remember: 2N is NEVER a suggestion for a final contract. 2N is either an invitation to game or conventional. You end in 2N only when the invitation to game is rejected. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted August 31, 2006 Report Share Posted August 31, 2006 I like following: take ♠K, unblock ♥K, exit a ♠. I expect ♠ to be 4-3 after the ♠2 lead. Same here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted September 1, 2006 Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 similar to cnszsun... but duck 2nd spade (just in case), win 3rd spade, and then lead the small diam. We can't unblock the ♥K, yet, because of entry problems. Players who lead clubs are not counting tricks. We have 6 tricks (1s+2h+1d+2c=6), we need 8. Clubs will only get us 1 more, but diam will get 2 more. We don't have the entries to set up the hearts. We are not out of the water, because we have entry problems. After taking the 4th spade (we pitch a club), opps will likely lead a club. We capture an honor with ♣K and play ♦AJ. If LHO wins the 2nd diam and leads another club, we will be forced to take the club finesse. We need 8 tricks, but cannot lose more than 5. Our loser budget is full with 3s+2d. Bidding: North's 2H requires 6, but with 9 hcp and no minor preference, 2H rather than pass is not that poor a bid. South's 2N over 2H shows about 16-17 (some would say 15). South is lite, but has conpensating 10's. I would pass 2H, but 2N is not unreasonable. agreed. Opps must defend well after they are in with a diamond to have a chance to beat. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lowerline Posted September 1, 2006 Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 First, I duck spades. 1. They continue spadesI play a low diamond to the table. They can take their last spade trick. If they switch clubs I take in hand and play ♦AJ. I now have 8 tricks (1 spade, 2 hearts, 3 diamonds, 2 clubs). 2. They switch to clubsI take in hand, cash the king of hearts and play a low diamond to the table.a. If they now play spades, I loose only if the spades are 5-2 and the spade length has an honor third in diamonds.b. If they continue clubs, I take the diamond finesse. If it looses and a heart is returned I need the heart finesse to win the contract. Of course there is also the (unlikely) possibility that LHO can now cash ♣QJ... Still, it feels like a good line. Steven Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trumpace Posted September 1, 2006 Author Report Share Posted September 1, 2006 in 2/1 (or sayc)1m 1M 2N = 18-19so a 3rd round 2N by opener = 16-1714 is too lite so pass 2H is proper bid. With Responder showing 6-10 with 6h, your hand will play terrible in 2N. The only reason you make 2N is because responder had 9 hcp. Give responder something like ♠Jx ♥AJTxxx ♦xx ♣Jxx and 2N is hopeless, but 2H probably makes. Good Rule to remember: 2N is NEVER a suggestion for a final contract. 2N is either an invitation to game or conventional. You end in 2N only when the invitation to game is rejected. Thanks for the explanation! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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