mike777 Posted August 6, 2006 Report Share Posted August 6, 2006 AK3...Q72....9753....KQ4 Assume you play 2/1 game force with the usual toys including a version of Jacoby 2nt. 1s=p=? 1) What is your bid and why?2) Would you alert it?3) Assuming you think your bid was not alertable but the opp stop bidding and ask you what your bid means, how do you explain it? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted August 6, 2006 Report Share Posted August 6, 2006 This is a nasty hand for some flavors of 2/1... I've seen a lot of different ways to handle it. Some players advocate a natural GF 2NT response, use 3♣ to show the Jacoby 2NT hand. Others would prefer using a conventional 3NT response showing 3 card support and a 4333 shape. Still others would start with a forcing NT and then rebid 3NT. Finally, some schools of 2/1 use a conventional 2♣ advance that shows either clubs or this sort of hand. Absent any of those agreements, you're forced to be creative... Personally, I'd bid clubs to establish a game force and then support Spades. The bid isn't alertable, however, if the opponents ask you should explain that the club "suit" could be as short as three cards. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted August 6, 2006 Report Share Posted August 6, 2006 Some would bid 1N followed by 4S - not ideal. There's no real way to know how good this hand is until you hear a continuation from partner. If I were forced to make a bid, I'd bid 2N even if taken as Jacoby. The main point being, if you can't make a reasonable bid with a balanced game forcing hand something is wrong with the system. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted August 7, 2006 Report Share Posted August 7, 2006 The purpose of alerting is to inform opponents that they might wish to ask questions about your agreements. The laws, and the principle of full disclosure, require you to explain what can be deduced about the hand by either partnership agreeement about the meaning of the call, or through partnership experience. You are not required to tell opponents what's actually in your hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted August 7, 2006 Report Share Posted August 7, 2006 AK3...Q72....9753....KQ4 Assume you play 2/1 game force with the usual toys including a version of Jacoby 2nt. 1s=p=? 1) What is your bid and why?2) Would you alert it?3) Assuming you think your bid was not alertable but the opp stop bidding and ask you what your bid means, how do you explain it? Why not 2♦? It's a 4 card suit, it's game forcing, and hopefully they'll lead clubs now. Not sure if I'm overthinking or underthinking this. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bid_em_up Posted August 7, 2006 Report Share Posted August 7, 2006 3N. 13-15, specifically 4-3-3-3 without 4 trumps. Yes, its alerted. If asked, I explain the same way. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted August 7, 2006 Report Share Posted August 7, 2006 If I have discussed with my partner how I deal with specifically this hand-type (balanced 3 trump raise to game), then I make whatever call we have agreed. That may or may not be alertable, depending on what it is. If I haven't discussed it, I bid 2D. I would alert this in England as game forcing. If asked, I explain as "natural, game forcing". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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