Jump to content

I bid 4 diamonds meaning it to be a retransfer


Recommended Posts

[hv=d=e&v=a&n=shkqt753dkq7c9532&w=s96hj982dj852c864&e=sak7543h4dt9caqt7&s=sqjt82ha6da643ckj]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

West North East South

 

 -     -     1    1NT

 Pass  2    2    Dbl

 Pass  4    Pass  5

 Pass  5    Pass  6

 Pass  Pass  Pass  

 

what should I have bid after 2!S x

Link to comment
Share on other sites

If the partnership is playing both Jacoby and Texas transfers, then there is an important difference in the types of hands being shown(at least as the people who I know in the states play it.) An immediate Texas transfer of 4D is either not slam invitational or is the prelude to slam investigation (often used to then make 4NT RKC). A transfer such as 2D followed by a raise to game is played by most people I know as a mild slam try. If you judged your hand as being worth a mild slam try, then I am OK with the 3D bid. If you didn't judge your hand as being worth at least a mild slam try, then you might have been better served by initially bidding 4D (assuming that this is a transfer).

 

IF you valued your hand as being worth a slam try, then I don't have a problem with a 3S bid: it warns partner to disregard any wasted honors in spades and you can still have time to bid 4H.

 

(note: I am not suggesting whether or not the hand is worth a slam try, only suggesting a method for differentiating a game bid from a slam try given the current auction.)

 

There is an old maxim: "when in doubt, bid what you think you can make".

 

DHL

Link to comment
Share on other sites

The dbl, by the NT opener is not my cup

of coffee, but then i dont open NT with a

5 card mayor.

 

3D is certainly nat.

Is it forcing? That depends a bit on the meaning

of 2 NT.

What does 4D mean? No idea, a default agreement

would be splinter (... in case 3D was forcing).

Undiscussed I would never assume retransfer.

 

Bid simply 4H, ... next board.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

Link to comment
Share on other sites

3? What is the point of 3? You already know that you want to play in 4, so why not Texas transfer immediately.

the bidding was (1S) 1NT (P) 2D (2S) X (P)

 

i can understand (1S) 1NT (P) 4D as texas, but i'm not sure 4D carries the same meaning after 2S, and that was his question.. maybe a simple 4 is best (after 2S), but he was evidently trying to get partner to declare... that was the point of my 3S suggestion

Link to comment
Share on other sites

4 is usually a splinter but maybe not in this situation. Just bid 4, that's clear and there's no particular reason to let partner declare. In fact, with your void in spades it may be an advantage for you to declare yourself if yo get a spade lead.
Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...