A likely misfit, what do you bid?

[golfacer]

[hv=d=s&v=b&s=sqhj7dqt862ca8532]133|100|Scoring: MP

1♠-pass-1NT-pass

2♥-pass-?[/hv]

 

Partner opened in 1st seat, and your first bid is the usual 1NT forcing.

[han]

2♠. The only alternative is pass, I expect spades to play better than hearts.

[inquiry]

2♠

[Echognome]

This reminds me of the common bidding poll question of what to do with a 5=5=1=2 six count after 1♦ - 1♠ - 2♣ - ?.

 

I've heard answers from bidding 1♥ to begin with, to passing 2♣, to giving what i think is the "book bid" of a false preference to 2♦. I will make that book bid here and bid 2♠, but I can imagine other solutions may work out.

 

Incidentally, when you are NOT playing 2/1, but rather something like Acol or SAYC, doesn't a 2NT rebid show this hand? I certainly wouldn't try it without discussion, but somewhere in the back of my mind I think it does.

[mike777]

This reminds me of the common bidding poll question of what to do with a 5=5=1=2 six count after 1♦ - 1♠ - 2♣ - ?.

 

I've heard answers from bidding 1♥ to begin with, to passing 2♣, to giving what i think is the "book bid" of a false preference to 2♦.  I will make that book bid here and bid 2♠, but I can imagine other solutions may work out. 

 

Incidentally, when you are NOT playing 2/1, but rather something like Acol or SAYC, doesn't a 2NT rebid show this hand?  I certainly wouldn't try it without discussion, but somewhere in the back of my mind I think it does.

This is why they invented reverse flannery, the cosmic convention. :)

1minor=2h=4+hearts and 5+spades, weakish.

[awm]

This is the kind of hand that makes me glad I don't play 2/1. :)

 

Reverse flannery responses don't actually fix this sort of problem, they just boot the issue back to opener. For example, suppose you open 1♦ with:

 

x

Qx

AJxxx

KQxxx

 

Now partner bids 2♥ showing a weakish hand with 4+♥ and 5♠. Your call? :)

[pclayton]

This is the kind of hand that makes me glad I don't play 2/1. :P

 

Reverse flannery responses don't actually fix this sort of problem, they just boot the issue back to opener. For example, suppose you open 1♦ with:

 

x

Qx

AJxxx

KQxxx

 

Now partner bids 2♥ showing a weakish hand with 4+♥ and 5♠. Your call? :)

On this hand, yes.

 

But give opener a 0355, and RF solves the problem quite nicely.

[Walddk]

Bid a confident 2♠ and smile :P

 

Roland

[mikeh]

Bid a confident 2♠ and smile :P

 

Roland

Another believer in upside down attitude signals: in the old days, playing standard methods, we'd bid a slow, hesitant 2♠ and look worried.

 

Is this inverted approach alertable?

[Blofeld]

Certainly not in England at the moment, but when the new Orange book comes into force it will be announcable if played in the simple manner, and alertable if you sometimes use standard.

 

Afraid I don't know about that side of the pond.

[neilkaz]

I had this hand last night and passed since I really didn't want to hear another call from PD (although he could have some extras and call 2NT) with this misfit. I was taking a chance that if Hearts were 4-2 he could ruff a spade in dummy. I'd played with this pickup for over an hour and also felt he was more likely to rebid spades if 6-4 and we were playing SAYC with non forcing NT. Still I think 2S is a better call here.

 

Anyhow, playing 2/1 with forcing NT, there's many invitational hands with 5 hearts (that could make or stretch to a SAYC 2/1) that start with 1NTF. For that reason, PD really needs to rebid 2H with 6-4 hands (perhaps with the exception of a really good 6 card spade suit and xxxx in H). Based on that, I think it better in 2/1 to bid 2S here, rather than gambling that opener was 5-5. Also my PD seemed somewhat aggressive about jumping with strong unbalanced hands so it was extremely unlikely that by passing 2H we'd miss game.

 

We missed a good score, as I recall, when he missplayed our 5-2 H fit (he was 55) and went -1. This was about the only hand this foreign expert missplayed all night.

 

Another question is what do you do if, after your preference to 2S, he bids 2NT ? I think you could still be set in some misfit 26 and 27 HCP 3NT's here ?!?

 

Thx for posting this and for pointing out that 2S is a better call than my lucky pass.

 

.. neilkaz ..

[P_Marlowe]

<snip>

Another question is what do you do if, after your preference to 2S, he bids 2NT ? I think you could still be set in some misfit 26 and 27 HCP 3NT's here ?!?

<snip>

2NT as a bid does not exist in this

seq.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[hatchett]

QUOTE (neilkaz @ Jul 7 2006, 10:12 PM)

<snip>

Another question is what do you do if, after your preference to 2S, he bids 2NT ? I think you could still be set in some misfit 26 and 27 HCP 3NT's here ?!?

<snip> 

 

 

2NT as a bid does not exist in this

seq.

 

 

Why does it not exist? It shows something like a 5422 17/18 count. You have an obvious raise to 3NT over 2NT in this sequence.

[Double !]

very interesting hand

i thought that i would be in the vast minority by selecting a false preference to 2S.

There is one additional reason for bidding that, I don't believe, has been mentioned. Opener might take a 3rd bid, unlikely as it might be. What would you do with 5440 and a little more than a minimum after the 1NT bidder bids 2S/2H?

 

DHL

[whereagles]

2♠. I consider this a no-brainer ;)