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Uncomfortable high-level misfit auction


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To address the original question. I think the 2S call should show at least 6 (not just 5 as some seem to believe). Opener has already shown at least 9 cards in diamonds and hearts, and since you are looking at a diamond void, he is very likely to hold at least 6+ diamonds. Even if he only has 9 cards, the odds are against him holding at least three spades so every effort should be made to pick one of openers two suits whenever you can. Therefore, you must hold 6 spades.

 

Given that, it is the 3S call that I find the least desirable here. Partner cannot hold any sort of fit for spades. On the actual auction, I still see no reason why partner cant (and shouldnt) be 0-4-5-4, and bid 4C over 3C. Having failed to do that, the cheapest available game now is 4H and thats what I do.

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The ONLY time opener should consider a reverse into a 3 card suit is with 3 card support: he has to have a place to go if he is raised. Thus after the 2 3 sequence, you KNOW that he lacks 3 and thus he 100% has 4.

I don't actually agree with this. What about:

 

Ax AKx AQJxxxx x

 

and many other similar hands (make the hand slightly better if you're comfortable bidding 3D on this).

 

I'll note that I think this hand bids 2H and follows that up with 3C.

 

Andy

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The ONLY time opener should consider a reverse into a 3 card suit is with 3 card support: he has to have a place to go if he is raised. Thus after the 2 3 sequence, you KNOW that he lacks 3 and thus he 100% has 4.

I don't actually agree with this. What about:

 

Ax AKx AQJxxxx x

 

and many other similar hands (make the hand slightly better if you're comfortable bidding 3D on this).

 

I'll note that I think this hand bids 2H and follows that up with 3C.

 

Andy

Again you are forcing to game across from:

KT9xx..xxx....void...JT9xx ? or other similiar hands?

Kxxxx,,,Jxx....void.....Jxxxx

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The ONLY time opener should consider a reverse into a 3 card suit is with 3 card support: he has to have a place to go if he is raised. Thus after the 2 3 sequence, you KNOW that he lacks 3 and thus he 100% has 4.

I don't actually agree with this. What about:

 

Ax AKx AQJxxxx x

 

and many other similar hands (make the hand slightly better if you're comfortable bidding 3D on this).

 

I'll note that I think this hand bids 2H and follows that up with 3C.

 

Andy

Ok, I admit that 'only' was an overbid.

 

In fact, a more accurate statement of the thought I was trying to express is:

 

'Opener will either hold 4 or have a hand with which, if are ever raised, he intends to prefer back to '.

 

Thus on your example hand, I would rebid 3 over 2, non-forcing (my reverses without a fit are strong but not gf). If my hand were stronger or if I were feeling particularly optimistic, so that I had to make that horrible (because so devoid of useful info) 3 force (I am not objecting to the use of the bid in this fashion, merely observing that it is impefect), then I would bid 3 over 3.

 

Yes, this may mean playing in a 5-2, but so what? If neither opener nor responder can bid 3N (and responder can always try 3N over 3 with the right hand), we are not missing a playable 3N. If responder cannot raise or give preference to , we are not missing a good game/slam.

 

So I repeat my choice of 3 for all the same reasons I expressed earlier, subject only to the modification of principle described here.

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