2 to adjudicate

[jdeegan]

:P These are two great problem hands.

 

On the first one, responder knows slam is close after the splinter, but there is no convenient cue bid. I would advise either blasting with a 6♠ call or inviting with a 5♠ bid. The latter is no good if partner is a pedant who will think it asks for trumps, but otherwise, that bid looks best to me.

 

The second one is, I think, a good cautionary tale. The only way I see to get to the near laydown slam is to start with 2♣, so that must be the right call??? I think it is, upon some reflection. You got 20 HCP. You got a 6-4 hand with 5.5+ tricks in the 6 bagger, and a good four bagger. This is too good a hand to open for one despite the awkwardness that is sure to follow after the wretched 2♣ game forcing opening bid.

[Apollo81]

Brian and I bid about 50 sets yesterday in preparation for Chicago. There were two that we had a disagreement on. I'd like to hear your opinions:

 

<!-- EASTWEST begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td>Dealer:</td> <td> ????? </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Vul:</td> <td> ???? </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Scoring:</td> <td> Unknown </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> JTxx </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> AKQxx </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> Axxx </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td>  </td> </tr> </table> </th> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> AKQxx </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> J </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> T9xx </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> QJx </td> </tr> </table> </th> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- EASTWEST end -->

 

1♥ - 1♠

4♦ - 4♠

 

Unfortunately we don't play Last Train here. Any suggestions on getting to this great slam?

 

<!-- EASTWEST begin --><table border='1'> <tr> <td> <table> <tr> <td>Dealer:</td> <td> ????? </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Vul:</td> <td> ???? </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Scoring:</td> <td> Unknown </td> </tr> </table> </td> <td> <table> <tr> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> x </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> KQ9x </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> AK </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> AKJTxx </td> </tr> </table> </th> <th> <table> <tr> <th class='spades'>♠</th> <td> AKxxxx </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='hearts'>♥</th> <td> xx </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='diamonds'>♦</th> <td> xx </td> </tr> <tr> <th class='clubs'>♣</th> <td> Qxx </td> </tr> </table> </th> </tr> </table> </td> <td>  </td> </tr> </table><!-- EASTWEST end -->

 

1♣ - 1♠

2♥ - 2♠

3N - Pass

 

We don't play structured reverses (not a bad thing in my eyes). 2♠ is neutral; 3N promises extras.

Hand #1: East's 4♠ bid is astoundingly horrible. West is stretching a bid with 4♣ but it's still probably the best bid.

 

Hand #3: Best bet to reach the slam is 1♣-1♠-2♥-2♠-3♦. Since it's unclear what opener is doing, responder should probably bid a temporizing 3♠ and then correct 3NT to 4♣ to show a good hand. Opener's sequence should show doubt about 3NT and I don't see how it can be right for responder to sit here. Now opener can bid RKC or just plain 6♣.

Noble - welcome to the forums.

 

Why would the 1=4=2=6 want to create doubt that 3N is the best contract when holding a double stop in the 4th suit?

3NT instead of 3♦ is also reasonable/maybe right. Since the hand is a really a 2♣ opener though I worry that if I bid 3NT that I have underdescribed my values. (I would still open 1♦ if not playing the convention Fred mentioned - you sort of have to)

 

So 3♦ not because I'm worried about diamonds; 3♦ because I'm worried about missing a slam.

 

West certainly can't be criticized for bidding 3NT. I doubt that any/many pairs in a typical game holding the West hand would bid anything different.

 

-Noble

[P_Marlowe]

http://home.mn.rr.com/bilbert/structured_reverses.htm

 

For this discussion, a reverse is defined as when opener's second bid is a non-jump 2-level bid of a higher-ranking suit after responder has made a 1-level bid. A reverse by opener shows 17+ points and insufficient values to bid two clubs. Structured reverses are used to help opener decide what level to set the contract. A reverse is absolutely forcing for one round, and in some cases more, but is not absolutely forcing to game.

Hi,

 

your definition is fine, but open is,

does a reverse promise a rebid.

 

There is a difference between forcing

for one round and forcing with the

promise to bid again.

 

Just take the auction, which crops up again

and again:

 

1C - 1S

2D - 2S .-)

 

With kind regards

Marlowe