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SAYC bidding


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This is how I think it should be bid

 

SAYC pard seemed better than me (thats not saying much LOL) BWood and no real discussions

 

1H - p - 1NT - p - 2H - p - 3C all pass

this is how it was bid gave us a top making 9 tricks, I just am not convinced we should be there

 

[hv=d=s&v=e&n=sa754haj9876d94ck&w=s96hkt32da873ca75&e=skjt83h54dj65cq84&s=sq2hqdkqt2cjt9632]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

West North East South

 

 -     -     -     Pass

 Pass  1    Pass  2

 Pass  2    Pass  2NT

 Pass  3    Pass  3NT

 Pass  Pass  Pass  

 

 

 

ur comments welcomed please about all THX

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"1H-1N-2H looks about right."

 

Agree, but 2C isn't totally out of line. I would have rebid 2H after 2C. I don't think the North hand is good enough to insist on game opposite what may be (and is) a bad 10 count without a little heart support. I don't think 2S shows 17, but it should show 15/good 14.

 

After 1H-2C-2S, 3NT is inevitable.

 

After 1H-2C-2H, in true SAYC responder must bid again. Yuck! Horrible clubs for 3C, 3D is GF. So I would bid 2NT. :rolleyes:

 

North would probably pass, or maybe sign off in 3H

 

BTW, I believe that a 3C rebid is technically undefined in SAYC as to strength, forcing/nonforcing. Does anyone have an authority which says if it is forcing?

 

Peter

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After 1H-2C-2H, in true SAYC responder must bid again. Yuck! Horrible clubs for 3C, 3D is GF.  So I would bid 2NT.  :lol:

 

I think you're forgetting something here. South passed in first seat. His 2 bid is therefore not forcing in any "true" version of Standard American. B) IMO, North doesn't have anything close to a reverse. His call is either 2 or Pass.

 

As for a 3 rebid from opener, the ACBL SAYC booklet says:

 

Few sequences are defined in the later rounds of “ACBL Standard Yellow Card” auctions. Players are free to assign forcing, invitational or non-forcing meanings to natural calls in such sequences.
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i guess i hate sayc cause i just don't understand it... why 2c? why 2s over 2c? (that's a reverse even is sayc isn't it?).. agree with the others, looks like 1h : 1nt : 2h pass to me

Why 2? Because you have a maximum hand, a suit and no great fit. If this isn't a 2 bid then what is?

 

I agree that 2 needs a stronger hand.

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Why 2? Because you have a maximum hand, a suit and no great fit. If this isn't a 2 bid then what is?

ok, if you say so... but after 1h : 2c : 2h, 2nt has to be bid eh? i'd say any hand that's strong enough to bid 2c *and* has the promised rebid is a 2c bid

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The appropriate bidding here is:

1 - 2

2 - pass

Some may argue that 2 is self forcing, but i think it is ok to pass with a minimum hand and because 2 should also show a minimum hand.

2 from north is a huge overbid (and as you know from other threads I'm willing to reverse "weak").

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