Free Posted June 27, 2006 Report Share Posted June 27, 2006 What's the general meaning of following auctions: 1. (Dbl probably takeout)1♥ - 3♠ - Dbl - pass4♥ - pass - 4♠? 2. (Dbl probably takeout)1♥ - 3♠ - Dbl - pass4♥ - pass - 4NT? 3. 1♥ - 3♠ - 4♠? 4. 1♥ - 3♠ - 4NT? Tnx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted June 27, 2006 Report Share Posted June 27, 2006 1. Cue2. Blackwood3. Cue4. Blackwood With the caveat that anything can happen in an indy. Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 27, 2006 Author Report Share Posted June 27, 2006 1. Cue2. Blackwood3. Cue4. Blackwood So what's the difference between doubling first or not? B) Or do you have different kind of cues? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted June 27, 2006 Report Share Posted June 27, 2006 The difference is that a direct 4♠ or 4NT shows a good fit for hearts. The indirect 4♠ or 4NT effectively agrees hearts, but only because opener has rebid the suit (so it's often just doubleton heart). Obviously "better" treatments are possible, but I wouldn't assume any of them in an individual (even if I know partner is a good player). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted June 27, 2006 Report Share Posted June 27, 2006 "So what's the difference between doubling first or not? Or do you have different kind of cues?" Free, for goodness sake you are talking about an INDY! You will be lucky to get a cue bid recognized. Personally, I would never cue bid in an indy, and use Blackwood reluctantly - does he think plain Blackwood, 0314, 1430, or will we think it is quantitative and pass it? Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 27, 2006 Author Report Share Posted June 27, 2006 Ok, I'll edit my post, apparently "suppose" followed by "for example" used between "( )" isn't the right choice of words since it gets interpreted more seriously than the question itself... It's about general agreements, NOT indy's... B) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted June 27, 2006 Report Share Posted June 27, 2006 In that case I agree with Adam. Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted June 27, 2006 Report Share Posted June 27, 2006 Really it makes some sense for X followed by 4NT to be a demand that partner pick a minor. Usually keycard is somewhat silly in this auction because opener needs to evaluate trump quality, and I would tend to bid 4♠ to 'agree' hearts with doubleton and try slam. But I wouldn't assume that without specific discussion 4NT is anything but rkc. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 28, 2006 Author Report Share Posted June 28, 2006 Here's the problem hand:[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sxhadqt9xxxcatxxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Partner opened 1♥, RHO intervened 3♠. I thought double should show my hand (not that extreme ofcourse) where partner bid 4♥. Since LHO didn't raise ♠ I thought partner had lots of small ♠s so imo 5m would be more successful than 4♥. I was afraid partner would interprete 4NT as RKC, so I bid 4♠, which was misinterpreted (or wrong). ;) Partner's hand:[hv=d=n&v=n&s=sxhadqt9xxxcatxxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] 4♥ and 6♦ were laydown, but we ended up in 5♥*-1... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kolay Posted June 28, 2006 Report Share Posted June 28, 2006 I will bid 4D after 3S if I want to bid, If I bid dbl, I will pass 4H.... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted June 28, 2006 Report Share Posted June 28, 2006 Hi, the simple first: 3) Cue, ... shortage4) RKCB 1) and 2) depend on the meaning of 4C / 4D,are those real suits or cues? My guess 1) Ask for further description, ... pick a minor2) RKCB, but I dont see a lot of dfference to 4), since opener did not show add. strength, with the sole exception, that 4H showed most likely a 6 card, because with a weak NT he may have passed the neg. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted June 29, 2006 Report Share Posted June 29, 2006 After 4♥, if you want to bid again I think 5♦ is best. Your original double shows both minors, and then bidding a suit shows that this was the better one, so opener should get the idea that you're 6-5. But as kolay says, you could have simply bid 4♦ initially. Then if opener doesn't support you, you can bid 5♣. The main benefit to doubling is that partner can choose to leave it in or bid 3NT if he has good stuff in ♠ (which one he chooses will probably depend on the vulnerability). But this can backfire; yesterday's Daily Bridge Calendar had a hand where RHO opens 4♠ and you have ♠QJTx in the suit, but you have a slam your way in another suit when partner reopens with 4NT to show a general two-suiter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joshs Posted June 29, 2006 Report Share Posted June 29, 2006 What's the general meaning of following auctions: 1. (Dbl probably takeout)1♥ - 3♠ - Dbl - pass4♥ - pass - 4♠? 2. (Dbl probably takeout)1♥ - 3♠ - Dbl - pass4♥ - pass - 4NT? 3. 1♥ - 3♠ - 4♠? 4. 1♥ - 3♠ - 4NT? Tnx 1. x showed the minors, and the cue-bid says "I am interested in a slam, do something intellegent" 2. I think its rkc for hearts. its not totally unreasonable to play it for minors, but its not a normal agreement (you know partner has 6+ hearts, so 4H is a playable spot, having a better fit at the 5 level is only hypothetical even with 6-5 in the minors, and its 1 level higher). This hand normally has only 2 hearts or perhaps was 2344 and thought that they might be better off in a minor, or defending spades. 3. Slam try, agree's hearts 4. RKC Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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