mamo2500 Posted November 15, 2003 Report Share Posted November 15, 2003 Hi allMy p and I was discussing the meaning of this sequence 1 NT - 2 C 1 NT (15-17)2 D - 3 D His hand was S KDxxH DxxxD BTxxxC - I believe 3 D shows a stronger hand with more diamonds.What do you believe? :) Marianne PS Can anyone link me to the discussion of opening NT with a singleton K or A? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Poky Posted November 17, 2003 Report Share Posted November 17, 2003 Since a new suit on 3rd level is played as at least "round forcing bid" this hand is a very bad example of it. Only invitational values, misfitting in clubs... It would be a disaster when opener rebids 3NT. What now? Pass for two-down when opener holds the 3325 pattern (most probably)? Two better alternatives are:a) 2NT, natural invitation (very doubtful, with void),:) 2H, pass/correct, aiming a Moysian fit in major (best choice). Poky Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted November 17, 2003 Report Share Posted November 17, 2003 Hi Marianne, The meaning of 3D can be clouded only by what the meaning of a 2S rebid would have meant. Specifically, some people play this.... 1N 2C2D 2H <<---non forcing 5/4 or 4/5 (can have 5S and 4H, non-forcing 1N 2C2D 2S <<-- artifiical force, This 2S bid opens up 3C/3D over 2D as non-forcing. In standard stayman, without such an agreement, I would expecct the 3D bid to be better than the hand shown. Ben Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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