Jboling Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 For me, new minor forcing is variation of Checkback Stayman/Chrowhurst, with the distinguishing feature being that you use a bid in a new minor as forcing instead of 2♣ always. In the current situation 1♣-1♠-2♣ a 2♥ bid would also be forcing, although it is not a minor. The reason for that is that it is a new suit by an unpassed responder. The same does not hold for opener, a non-jump and non-reverse new suit, no matter if it is a major or a minor, is nonforcing. Or would you apply NMF to opener also? Back to the original problem, what does responder do with 5+♦ and 4♠ and invitational strength? I think that it could go like this 1♣-1♠-2♣-2♦ = roundforcing, 2+♦ and 4+♠1♣-1♠-2♣-2NT = natural invitation1♣-1♠-2♣-3♦ = 5+♠-4+♦, GF1♣-1♠-2♣-2♦-2♠-2NT = 4♠-5♦, inv1♣-1♠-2♣-2♦-2♠-3♦ = 4♠-6+♦, inv Or the last two could just describe the heart stopper situation. Responder denied 4♠ and 5+♦ with GF strength with his 1♠ bid. Another issue which seem to be unclear is whether 2♥ is fourth suit forcing or natural and thus maybe even nonforcing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 I had no idea that using 2♦ was called the Bourke relay: I had just thought that it was common sense :) 1♣ 1Major 2♣ has always been one of the weak areas in standard methods, and I cannot recall how long ago I began playing 2♦ here as a 'noise': certainly, for the past 10+ years, I have (in my serious partnerships) an entire structure built around it, but I would not expect any expert partner to think that I was guaranteeing any number of ♦'s. How else does one create a force with a multitude of problem hands? And with weakness, I am 100% with Hannie: use the magic word: PASS. I am looking at a 2=4=1=6: the only conceivable reason for not bidding 2♥ would be that I hate my ♥ suit, and my Ax ♠, by comparison, looks like Jxx... with which I would have an easy 2♠ bid. In my methods, 2♦ does not deny a 4 card ♥ suit, because we play 2♥ by responder as non-forcing: this allows us to bid weak major 2-suiters without much fear: you hold Qxxxx KJxxx xxx void and on the given auction, you have to pass 2♣, because 2♥ is forcing one round... So, in my methods, 2♥ is mandatory, but I appreciate that these methods may not be mainstream B) I would opt for 2♥ anyway. BTW, since 2♦ is a forcing noise, I would NOT treat 2♥ by opener as fourth suit: indeed, while my approach my be simplistic, I never treat opener as able to use an artificial 4th suit bid in any auction: 4th suit as an artificial force rests with responder. I should add that I have never seen an auction in which opener needs to 'fourth suit', altho that is not to say that one could not come up with one. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 For me, 2♠, which tends to deny 3 spades but rather show Hx in spades. As to why not show 3♠, maybe I am way out of the main stream but when I rebid 2♣ I will have an unbalanced hand, and when I have three card support for my partners major and a weak unbalanced hand, I raise to 2M immediately. Ergo, this auction 1C-1S-2C-2D-2S tends to deny 3 spades. Oh sure, I might have really good clubs and 3 really weak spades, but the tendency is for a hand similar to one shown. Why not 2♥? That doesn't look like a four card suit to me despite holding four or them, and I play two way reverse flannery by responder so partner could have bid 2♥ forcing with four. So there in no future in hearts here. I am quoting this post since I completely concur, other than that I don't normally play Rev Flan. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 2. Playing 2-way checkback Stayman: After a 1NT rebid, 2♣ is not mostly, as you write, but always a puppet to 2♦ (usually followed by an invitational bid). Please read my post again. I understood, that YOU play it this way. I learned it different: (And we do not name it 2 way checkback, it is called relay Transfer... With a weak hand a three card spade support, opener is allowed to bid 2 Spade instead of 2 Diamond. I never claimed, that you play this way, but this is why I wrote mostly. 3. New Minor Forcing (NMF): "The use of a bid in an unbid minor suit by responder as an artificial convenient forcing bid after a 1NT rebid by the opening bidder". This is the decription. Note "1NT rebid". 2♦ happens to be a new minor on the auction outlined in the first post, but I repeat: it has nothing to do with NMF. This is often misinterpreted by intermediate and advanced players, never among experts. Roland So please enlight my intermediate or advanced view: Experts do know, that after 1 ♣ 1 ♠ 2 ♣ 2 ♦ does not promise more then two diamonds, is a new minor and is forcing, but is not new minor forcing, because per definition a new minor is just named a new minor after a NT rebid? Or are there real differences, which I just cannot see? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 1.♠ AKJ953♥ KQ7♦ A5♣ Q6 2.♠ KQJ95♥ J53♦ AKJ♣ K8 3.♠ AQJ943♥ Q32♦ A♣ KJ5 4.♠ AK1064♥ K♦ KJ43♣ 1097 In all 4 examples the bidding goes: 1♣-1♠2♣- ?? What is your next bid? Most of you will probably have figured out what I am aiming at but feel free to disagree. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 3. New Minor Forcing (NMF): "The use of a bid in an unbid minor suit by responder as an artificial convenient forcing bid after a 1NT rebid by the opening bidder". This is the decription. Note "1NT rebid". 2♦ happens to be a new minor on the auction outlined in the first post, but I repeat: it has nothing to do with NMF. This is often misinterpreted by intermediate and advanced players, never among experts. Roland So please enlight my intermediate or advanced view: Experts do know, that after 1 ♣ 1 ♠ 2 ♣ 2 ♦ does not promise more then two diamonds, is a new minor and is forcing, but is not new minor forcing, because per definition a new minor is just named a new minor after a NT rebid? Or are there real differences, which I just cannot see? Now you got it absolutely right. After a 1NT rebid, it's called NMF. However, if the rebid is not 1NT, it's simply a new suit, Bourke relay, etc. No, it doesn't promise more than a doubleton as I (and apparently MikeH too) play it. See above. You may call it NMF all you like but be prepared for misunderstandings if you agree to play NMF. Your BBO pick-up partner will likely not understand that this is how you mean it. 1♣-1♠2♣-2♥ is also forcing. Do you call that NMAF = New Major Forcing? The term NMF only applies after a 1NT rebid. I did not invent the description as quoted in one of my earlier posts. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 BTW, since 2♦ is a forcing noise, I would NOT treat 2♥ by opener as fourth suit: indeed, while my approach my be simplistic, I never treat opener as able to use an artificial 4th suit bid in any auction: 4th suit as an artificial force rests with responder. I should add that I have never seen an auction in which opener needs to 'fourth suit', altho that is not to say that one could not come up with one. I use 4SF as opener every now and again. Here are some of the auctions: 1♣ 1♥2♦ 2♥ (forcing for 1 round)2♠ 1♦ 1♠2♣ 2♦2♥ Opener is typically 5422, could be 5431 with singleton honour in partner's suit, or poor holding in the 4th suit 1♠ 2♦2♥ 2♠3♣ Particularly in a style where responder's 2S wasn't forcing. Again, opener is typically 5422 with extra values. Now, there are certainly alternative ways to play these sequences (e.g. your way, which is 'natural') and you might in practice end up making the same bid either way... but these are the sort of hands in which I find it useful. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 I use 4SF as opener every now and again. Here are some of the auctions: 1♣ 1♥2♦ 2♥ (forcing for 1 round)2♠ 1♦ 1♠2♣ 2♦2♥ Opener is typically 5422, could be 5431 with singleton honour in partner's suit, or poor holding in the 4th suit 1♠ 2♦2♥ 2♠3♣ Particularly in a style where responder's 2S wasn't forcing. Again, opener is typically 5422 with extra values. Now, there are certainly alternative ways to play these sequences (e.g. your way, which is 'natural') and you might in practice end up making the same bid either way... but these are the sort of hands in which I find it useful. Your meanings are fine, but I don't consider them 4sf. To me they are more just an extension of the definition of natural, that opener can take liberties if needed with the third suit he bids. 4sf incorporates a tremendously wide range of shapes, this is just saying opener can fudge the 4th suit by a card or an honor on certain specific hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 Well I think there is actually a difference in these treatments. Take the following two hands: xxQxAQJxAKQxx KJxxAKxxAKxxx On both hands the auction starts 1♣-1♥-2♦-2♥. What's opener's rebid? If 2♠ is "natural" it seems clear to bid 2♠ on the second hand. It seems weird to bid 2♠ on the first. If 2♠ is "fourth suit" then it's primarily a stopper ask and the clear favorite on the first hand, but seems weird on the second. In my style (which seems to be Frances' style as well) I would bid 2♠ on the first hand only as a "noise" to get another call from partner, and bid 2NT on the second hand. I guess the point is, it's okay to play that a bid is natural and occasionally fudge it with an awkward hand. But if you normally don't make the "natural" bid when you actually have the suit and only make it with an awkward hand, then it's not really a natural bid anymore. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 On the hand with KJx of spades I would bid 2NT. Change the spades to Axx and I would bid 2♠. Which way am I playing? The whole thing isn't either of 2 choices, it is a continuum. I still think calling either method 4SF is inaccurate. That would imply you could bid 2♠ on just about any shape with a game forcing hand, which no one seems to be saying. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 Ah well, now you mention it....I play an English style where we reverse a bit lighter than the US style. So, for example, 1C - 1H2D - 2H2NT/3C/3H are all non-forcing If I had a game force without direction, I would indeed bid 2S here. Particularly as it's cheap. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 I still like my 3nt choice here. I like my hand and I think pard has a decent hand or better. With a weakish 4s6D he gots to pass 2clubs. That is the whole point with Walsh, you skip over minors with weak hands. Walsh is from the 1960's with a lot of the ideas borrowed from 30's to 50's. If you cannot stand not bidding long D suits then do not play Walsh.He does not have 4 hearts on this auction....ergo he gots ta have something here. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fred Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 Close between 2♥ and 2♠. I don't mind either, but I have a slight preference for 2♠. Roland sums up my thoughts on this problem exactly. Fred GitelmanBridge Base Inc.www.bridgebase.com Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 I still like my 3nt choice here. I like my hand and I think pard has a decent hand or better. With a weakish 4s6D he gots to pass 2clubs. That is the whole point with Walsh, you skip over minors with weak hands. Walsh is from the 1960's with a lot of the ideas borrowed from 30's to 50's. If you cannot stand not bidding long D suits then do not play Walsh.He does not have 4 hearts on this auction....ergo he gots ta have something here. :)I don't understand the hurry here: why jump to 3N when partner may have a powerful but complex hand: see some of Roland's hands. And he may have other hand types of course. Do we really want to play 3N from our side when partner holds Kx♥? Do we really want to stress that we have the reds well stopped on this hand? It is not as if we HAVE to bid 3N now or never get there: I cannot think of any bid by us, other than 3♣ or 2♠, that can be passed. And, if he passes 2♠, I'm sure not going to think we missed a game. To me, the only choices are a shape-showing 2♥ that slightly overstates that suit and a preference of 2♠ that, again, slightly overstates that suit. A space-consuming, auction-destroying 3N makes little sense to me. Plus, Mike, from what you have posted on other threads, I assume that you play that partner's 4♣ call over 3N would be keycard... and that strikes me as a very strong reason NOT to bid 3N on any hand... let alone this one. Now, I would never play 4♣ over 3N as keycard, and maybe I have misunderstood your style. If not... if I have understood your style.... I ask you how partner can place the contract appropriately merely knowing how many keycards you hold? I apologize if my language seems aggressive: i respect your posts and mean no insult :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 2, 2006 Report Share Posted June 2, 2006 I see your point and concern with having nt from partner's side. 2H does show my shape but really overstates my heart honors. I can live with 2H. :)BTW 4 clubs can never be RKC for me on any auction. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flytoox Posted June 5, 2006 Report Share Posted June 5, 2006 I agree with 2H. No point to bid 3N, pd will bid it if it is the right contract. Pd may bid 3C and then I can rebid 3S. Whatever pd do we always have a nice choice later. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
foo Posted June 5, 2006 Report Share Posted June 5, 2006 1.♠ AKJ953♥ KQ7♦ A5♣ Q6 2.♠ KQJ95♥ J53♦ AKJ♣ K8 3.♠ AQJ943♥ Q32♦ A♣ KJ5 4.♠ AKT64♥ K♦ KJ43♣ T97 In all 4 examples the bidding goes: 1♣-1♠2♣- ?? What is your next bid? Most of you will probably have figured out what I am aiming at but feel free to disagree. Roland I have called 1m-1M;2m-2om! "NMFish" for a =long= time. Novices seem to fall into the "NMF" meanings for these auctions incredibly easily, and play 1m-1S;2m-2H as a minimum 54?? or 55?? just as easily. So w/ all of the example hands, my rebid as Responder is 2D! and if the auction had been 1D-1S;2D-?? they are all strong enough (GF) that I would bid 3C! ...and because this rebid by Responder could be made w/ =0= cards in that suit, IMHO Active Ethics requires Us to Alert it and explain just that if asked. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted June 5, 2006 Report Share Posted June 5, 2006 With a weak hand partner can pass. (...) so 2♦ is absolutely forcing, whether it is artificial or not depends on partnership agreement. In a context where the 2♣ rebid could be just 5 cards, it is possible responder might want to try diamonds with a weakish 4♠6♦. But ok, I see that nowadays everybody uses 2♦ as some strong bid (myself included), so that context isn't an issue. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
moysian Posted June 6, 2006 Report Share Posted June 6, 2006 I bid 2h. I REALLY want partner to bid NT, which he may not do with Qx or Qxx in H after I rebid clubs. Also, 2h also leaves room for P to bid 2s (showing 6), or 3c (maybe P has bigger things in mind). 3c by me eliminates these options. Lastly: Another rebid in clubs does not show any better club holding. It just means you have nothing else you could bid (something I would do if I held 3h and 2d). 2s misleads partner, who fully believes I hold 3 of them 3n is just plain silly - It presumes that you have no faith in partner's ability to help in reaching the best contract (which may be 3n). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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