mike777 Posted May 22, 2006 Report Share Posted May 22, 2006 edit Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted May 22, 2006 Report Share Posted May 22, 2006 lowerline,May 22 2006, 11:19 PM]I bid 2NT, the classic bid, and everyone passes. LHO leads ♥4, 4th best. This example shows that bidding 2♣ or 2♦ would have led to a better contract (2NT played by north, or even better: 3♦)In 3 ♦ you loose 3 Spade tricks before you gain the lead. And after that, you will loose 2 more Heart tricks if the king is not winning a trick.... So zero points for any bidding, that reaches 3 Diamond..... If you look at both hands, you want to be in 3 NT. After any major lead, you have a chance of about 50 % of success. Openers hand with just Txxx, Ax, AQTxx, Qx makes game nearly a certainity.So no points for 1 NT in this hand... So, if you think, that to care about rightsighting the contract is it worth, that you bid 2 Club or Diamond with balanced and unbalanced hands and with 11 to 30 HCPs, then these bids had been the winners. This is impossible to proove (in both directions), but I don´t share this view. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kalvan14 Posted May 23, 2006 Report Share Posted May 23, 2006 "The standard 2/1 does not include 2N as a balanced hand 11-12 (or stronger): 2N is a weak pre-emptive raise in diamonds" Where do you play, Kalvan? 2N as balanced invitational is standard 2/1 where I live. Peter In Australia. But I learnt 2/1 (many) years ago from Hardy's book.And IMHO inverting the meaning of 3m and 2N is quite a good idea. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lowerline Posted May 23, 2006 Report Share Posted May 23, 2006 In 3 ♦ you loose 3 Spade tricks before you gain the lead. And after that, you will loose 2 more Heart tricks if the king is not winning a trick.... So zero points for any bidding, that reaches 3 Diamond..... If you look at both hands, you want to be in 3 NT. After any major lead, you have a chance of about 50 % of success. Openers hand with just Txxx, Ax, AQTxx, Qx makes game nearly a certainity.So no points for 1 NT in this hand... So, if you think, that to care about rightsighting the contract is it worth, that you bid 2 Club or Diamond with balanced and unbalanced hands and with 11 to 30 HCPs, then these bids had been the winners. This is impossible to proove (in both directions), but I don´t share this view.If the ace of hearts is offside and the defenders don't screw up, you will make 4 to 6 tricks in NT. If the ace of hearts is onside, you might still go down if they can take 4 spade tricks. Ofcourse a vulnerable game swing is worth that risk. Unfortunately you don't know both hands beforehand. So it is more likely you will end up in 2NT or 3♦. Compared to 2NT 3♦ will loose 1imp half the time, but will win 3 to 7 imps the rest of the time. "So zero points for any bidding, that reaches 3 Diamond....." must be a misjudgement... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted May 23, 2006 Author Report Share Posted May 23, 2006 First of all, MyHands database seems to have erased my results, so I can't find the full hand anymore. I played the K, the Ace was offside and I went -4! If I put small I'd made it because lefty had QJxxx. But the lead wasn't that good. If LHO lead ♥Q you're screwed.It also didn't matter who played NT. After a ♠ lead you get a ♥ switch... Only 2♦ was makeble (unless some error in defense, 3♦ should do ok most of the time). Afterwards, I realised that playing NT from my side is wrong, always. Bidding 1M is no real alternative, so I guess the best thing is either 2♣ or 2♦. Since 2♣ may bring some confusion about GF or not, I think 2♦ is the best bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted May 23, 2006 Report Share Posted May 23, 2006 Okay, to all 2 Club and2 diamond bidders: What is your bidding plan after this?1 ♦ 2 ♣ 2 NT?1 ♦ 2 ♣ 2 ♦?1 ♦ 2 ♦ 2 NT? I think avm made some suggestions, why this won´t reach a better contract, so plaese tell me how you can reach a better contract with this method. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mr1303 Posted May 23, 2006 Report Share Posted May 23, 2006 Well, it depends. If 1D 2D 2NT is forcing, I bid 3NT. If 1D 2D 2NT is passable, I'll probably raise, since I'm vulnerable at imps, and have no way of involving partner here. If I'd bid 2C and partner bid 2D, I'd raise 2D to 3D, and see what partner does from there. Any number of NT is better played from my partner's side. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kalvan14 Posted May 23, 2006 Report Share Posted May 23, 2006 After 1♦-2♦ (IM), 2N guarantees stoppers in the majors and it is not forcing. It is now a bit of tossing a coin: opener most likely has a balanced hand, 12-14 HCP. Advancer has 12 HCP, in a very flat hand. At IMP and vul, advancer should raise to 3N. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lowerline Posted May 24, 2006 Report Share Posted May 24, 2006 Okay, to all 2 Club and2 diamond bidders: What is your bidding plan after this?1 ♦ 2 ♣ 2 NT?1 ♦ 2 ♣ 2 ♦?1 ♦ 2 ♦ 2 NT? I think avm made some suggestions, why this won´t reach a better contract, so plaese tell me how you can reach a better contract with this method.1♦ 2♣ 2NT = 12-141♦ 2♦ 2NT = 12-14Pass most of the time, but in this case (vul at imps) 3NT is probably worth the risk.Whether you play 2NT or 3NT, it will be played from the right side (a heart lead is not unlikely).As a side note: I don't think anyone will bid 3NT with the north hand after 1♦ 2NT... 1♦ 2♣ 2♦3♦3♦ is very likely to beat 2NT played by south... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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