dosxtres Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 Hi, How South can bid this hand? [hv=d=n&v=n&n=s94hq73dk9cakt742&s=sajthak54da84cj93]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] The bidding was 1♣ (1♦) x p2♣ p ? Playing 2/1, but i think it would be the same in sayc.Do i have any available bid to support clubs and forcing?Can south set up a GF auction with 2♥? is a reverse or a weak hand with 4♠ and 5♥? Ty all Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 It's fairly standard (I think in 2/1 also) that 1♣-(1♦)-X shows both majors. With the given hand I would bid 1♥ (showing 4+♥ and forcing). After the 2♣ rebid, south pretty clearly wants to drive towards slam in clubs. The quick tricks (aces and ace-king combos) in side suits argue for a slam try rather than bidding 3NT. I think 4♣ should be 100% forcing here -- with an invitational raise I would bid 3♣ and with a weak hand I would normally pass. If partner seems likely to pass 4♣, then I'll just blast to keycard. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 Its a minority view that double shows a 4 card major. Most play (as Adam indicates) that double promises 4-4. I too would bid 1♥ and then cue over 2♣. My guess is that pard rebids 2N. I might blast, but I'd probably just cue 3♠ and see what that gets me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben42 Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 Same here. 1♥ showing BOTH majors. For more on this see for example "Double!" by Mike Lawrence. Now that I have misrepresented my hand I will now bid 4NT - too much for 3NT not enough for 6. With a pickup partner he might take 4♣ as invitational or something even more horrible. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
foo Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 North Deals:♠94♥Q73♦K9♣AKT742 ♠AJT♥AK54♦A84♣J93 1C-(1D)-1H;2C-2D!; {after all, isn't your hand worth a cuebid of Their suit?} Opener will probably now bid 2N since they have a minimum w/ D's stopped. Now Responder can drive the auction to slam in C's or NT. {and as an added bonus, the hand that dove into Our auction is on Opening lead and very likely to blow up a trick for the defense and/or tell Declarer something important about the hand when they lead} Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dosxtres Posted May 16, 2006 Author Report Share Posted May 16, 2006 Thanks all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 16, 2006 Report Share Posted May 16, 2006 As already noted, a neg. dbl. in this seq.usually shows 4-4 in the mayors, ... thereplayers who play it different. The only forcing bid you have is 2D,it is unclear, if 2d already forces to gameor if it could still be inv.+ If GF => over 2NT which shows a diaomond stopper, you can bid 3C, opener will bid 3NTto show a min. opener, responder should pass. IF inv.+ => Opener will bid 2NT showing min.and a stopper and you should simply raise to 3NT or if you really want raise to 4NT. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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