foo Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 Sorry, I evidently tried to cram too much into one post. I'd rebid 2D in this auction w/ KTxxxx.x.KQxxx.x or any other hand w/ extras compared to a minimal overcall (say 5 or 6 losers and appropriate values and shape).If GOP has 3 good cards after this I expect them to GF.If GOP has 2 good cards after this I expect them to do something reasonable.If GOP has 1- good cards after this I expect them to pass or take a preference. I'd rebid 3D in this auction w/ AKTxxx.x.AKQxx.x or any other hand where I want to GF (say 4- losers and appropriate values and shape). Basically, I GF with any hand that expects to make game opposite a hand with 1- good cards. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kalvan14 Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 I'd bid 1♠ at 1st turn. When the bidding comes back after (1♣)-1♠-(1N)-P-(P), IMHO 3♦ should be enough (even if I agree it is not GF): pard is rated to have some points (less than 10, IMO), but more likely than not they will be the wrong ones.If anyone is afraid that bidding might stop with pard holding a fit in diamonds, I'd suggest 2N (which is obviously with a very strong 2-suiter: spades+minor). Btw, my LHO (who has bid 1N) holds certainly a stopper in spades. If he has 4 cards in the suit, this hand is unlikely to play game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
foo Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 I'd bid 1♠ at 1st turn. When the bidding comes back after (1♣)-1♠-(1N)-P-(P), IMHO 3♦ should be enough (even if I agree it is not GF): pard is rated to have some points (less than 10, IMO), but more likely than not they will be the wrong ones.If anyone is afraid that bidding might stop with pard holding a fit in diamonds, I'd suggest 2N (which is obviously with a very strong 2-suiter: spades+minor). Btw, my LHO (who has bid 1N) holds certainly a stopper in spades. If he has 4 cards in the suit, this hand is unlikely to play game. ♠AKTxxx♥x♦AKQxx♣x A jump shift or a reverse by Overcaller has to be GF or how in the world are you going to GF and describe your hand at the same time? Give GOP xx or Hx of spades, and please explain how I'm going down in 4S w/o a ruff or some other surprise happening? If GOP has xx of S's then S's are Jx:Qxx or H:HxxxI think everyone reading this can play any of those layouts for no more than 1 loser.So if GOP has a S fit for you and =nothing= else, you are losing at most 1S+1H+1C and taking 10 tricks to make 4S.If GOP happens to have a double fit in S+D w/ us (not unlikely on the auction) things rate to be even better. GOP rates to not be broke on this auction or the opp's would not be dying in 1N. Even better for Us, the hand that rates to have the delicate holdings is on opening lead, possibly blowing a trick in their hand, and must risk finessing the opening bidder on opening lead into our hand. What reasonably likely layout are you afraid of not making 4S with here when We have a S fit (or even if GOP has a stiff S honor)? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 I would simple bid my two suiter via 2 NT or 3 ♣, whatever method I play and later show, that I have the extra strength and extra spades by bidding this suit. And if pd just gave a preference to 3 Spade, I surely cuebid 4 ♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
foo Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 I would simple bid my two suiter via 2 NT or 3 ♣, whatever method I play and later show, that I have the extra strength and extra spades by bidding this suit. And if pd just gave a preference to 3 Spade, I surely cuebid 4 ♣. ♠AKTxxx♥x♦AKQxx♣x Ummm, after a 1C opening there is no Standard way to show this S+D two suiter using either 2N! (shows H+D here) or 2C! (shows S+H here)? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kalvan14 Posted May 15, 2006 Report Share Posted May 15, 2006 I'd bid 1♠ at 1st turn. When the bidding comes back after (1♣)-1♠-(1N)-P-(P), IMHO 3♦ should be enough (even if I agree it is not GF): pard is rated to have some points (less than 10, IMO), but more likely than not they will be the wrong ones.If anyone is afraid that bidding might stop with pard holding a fit in diamonds, I'd suggest 2N (which is obviously with a very strong 2-suiter: spades+minor). Btw, my LHO (who has bid 1N) holds certainly a stopper in spades. If he has 4 cards in the suit, this hand is unlikely to play game. ♠AKTxxx♥x♦AKQxx♣x A jump shift or a reverse by Overcaller has to be GF or how in the world are you going to GF and describe your hand at the same time? Give GOP xx or Hx of spades, and please explain how I'm going down in 4S w/o a ruff or some other surprise happening? If GOP has xx of S's then S's are Jx:Qxx or H:HxxxI think everyone reading this can play any of those layouts for no more than 1 loser.So if GOP has a S fit for you and =nothing= else, you are losing at most 1S+1H+1C and taking 10 tricks to make 4S.If GOP happens to have a double fit in S+D w/ us (not unlikely on the auction) things rate to be even better. GOP rates to not be broke on this auction or the opp's would not be dying in 1N. Even better for Us, the hand that rates to have the delicate holdings is on opening lead, possibly blowing a trick in their hand, and must risk finessing the opening bidder on opening lead into our hand. What reasonably likely layout are you afraid of not making 4S with here when We have a S fit (or even if GOP has a stiff S honor)? how to describe an absolute GF 2-suiter: I said it, 2N [other strong hands can be described doubling 1N, with defensive values, or cue-bidding 2C]3D, IMHO, shows a strong hand, but is not an absolute GF. With tolerance in spades, pard should correctwhy should it be likely that pard has a fit (not to mention a double fit)? Opener passed 1N, which hints to a balanced holding. LHO bid 1N: while this does not necessarily shows a balanced hand, it should guarantee a spade stopper, and deny 4 hearts (in which case a negative double makes more sense): therefore partner has (at least) 5 hearts. It is unlikely that oppos have 9 cards in clubs. Therefore, pard rates to have 4 clubs. It looks like that pard has (at best) 4 cards in the pointed suits. If they are 2-2, it's fine (but pard would correct 3D to 3S). If pard holds a singleton spade and 2-3 diamonds, I'd like to stop asap. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted May 16, 2006 Report Share Posted May 16, 2006 Ummm, after a 1C opening there is no Standard way to show this S+D two suiter using either 2N! (shows H+D here) or 2C! (shows S+H here)? There are some standard methods, one is called "Michaels prezise" and shows exactly any kind of two- suiter (without clubs). I don`t know the name for the other, but it simply shows Diamonds and an undisclosed major.... So, if you agreed, that 2 NT always shows the lowest suit and the cuebid always the highest, then you need to bid your suits in the old fashioned way. But I did not read this statement in the original post. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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