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good hand, but....


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Is 1NT forcing?

 

You're joking? I don't know anyone that plays 1NT as forcing in this sequence.

 

In this case 2H, assuming this

shows a 6 carder.

 

Partner will make a move most of

the time we will have game, so

you wont miss game often.

 

2 shows a desire to play in 2 and partner will move precisely 0% of the time over it.

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The hand is probably a choice between 3NT and 4 in a 6-2 fit.

I bid 3 here to show I want him to choose between 3NT and 4 and I have no help in spades.

 

3 would show better hearts and can be passed

2NT would be probably with some help in spades (not sure)

2 seems to ask for a minor

 

Who knows, maybe 3 carries the right message.

 

Luis

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2 followed by 3 NT/4 .

With 17 HCPs, a 6 card suit opps. a 8-10 hand, I am just too fat to play 1 or 2 NT.

 

Partscores with about 26 HCPS and length are not often a winning descission.

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The hand is probably a choice between 3NT and 4 in a 6-2 fit.

I bid 3 here to show I want him to choose between 3NT and 4 and I have no help in spades.

 

3 would show better hearts and can be passed

2NT would be probably with some help in spades (not sure)

2 seems to ask for a minor

 

Who knows, maybe 3 carries the right message.

I think it's too risky to bid 3 here. Being an undiscussed bid, pard may take it for a strong 0544 or maybe 6 solid hearts, good hand and no stopper. There is no guarantee pard is going to interpret 3 as 6 weakish hearts and nothing in spades.

 

Incidently, I believe there's a case for 3 to be forcing. 1NT isn't your usual 5-10, possibly unbalanced. It's about 8-10, usually balanced and with a stop. You can always lower the requirements for 3 to a min hand and good suit, though. (With a 1-suited med hand of 15-17 you just force to game.)

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[hv=d=e&v=n&s=sxxhk9xxxxdakjcaq]133|100|Scoring: MP

N......E......S......W

........P......1......1

1NT..P......?[/hv]

 

what call do you make?

Playing Standard, 1H-(1S)-1N shows ~8-9 HCP Responder w/ S's stopped.

 

we have 17 HCP and a 6 H's. We therefore belong in 3N or 4H.

 

Make whatever bid(s) will get Us there.

 

3S! is a nice but potentially too sophisticated choice. A good Responder will think along these lines after 1H-(1S)-1N-pa;3S!

"OK, that was a GF cue bid. GOP already heard me say I have S's stopped, so why is he asking me if S's are stopped? Because he needs a way to tell me he has 6th H in a GF hand."

 

2S! should also work:

...2S!-pa-2H...4H or

...2S!-pa-foo..2H => GF hand w/ 6+H

The upside is 2S! is less likely to be misunderstood. The downside is an extra round of bidding often tells the opponents how to defend more accurately.

 

Given your soft H's and stoppers in the short suits, 3N may play better then 4H even if We do have a 62 H fit, so just bidding 3N is not irrational either. If GOP has hidden 3card support, they should routinely bid 4H.

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Playing Standard, 1H-(1S)-1N shows ~8-9 HCP Responder w/ S's stopped.

I'll bid 3...then3NT or 4

Assuming that there are no typos in your post...

 

...you do know that Responder can pass 1H-(1S)-1N;3H-??

 

1H-(1S)-1N;3H is Invitational opposite an ~8-9 point Responder.

Meaning ~16 points.

 

Since with your ~19 point "foot" you never want Responder to pass below game, you have to make a rebid that is GF or find a sequence that is GF.

 

K9xxxx is just not a good enough trump suit to leap to 4M with.

Just rebidding 3N is awefully unilateral.

 

Cue-bids are 100% forcing and make it easy to establish a GF.

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