42 Posted May 7, 2006 Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 Hi! This hand haunted me last night:[hv=d=n&v=n&n=saj9xxh9dakxxcqxx&s=sxhakjxxd10cj1098xx]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv]Partner opens 1♠ (12-17). System:responder- 1NT = 7-11- 2♣ = GF- 2♥ = 9+ with 6°, otherwise 10+/11opener's rebids after 1NT (natural continuation after any other bid)- 2♣ = artificial, 15+- 2♦ = 12-14, nat. The field is not strong.What is the contract you would feel well in, playing a.) MP like here, b.) IMP? How do you bid on according to the given system? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 7, 2006 Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 Hi, playing IMP's in 5C, playing MP, ... since 5Cmakes, and you wont make a over trick in often 3NT after a diamond attack, as well. In real life I will reach a club partial, ... oh yes:I choose thy system bid, 1NT. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted May 7, 2006 Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 looks like 1s : 1nt : 2d : 2h : 2nt : 3c : 3nt Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Double ! Posted May 7, 2006 Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 IMO, this hand is about hand evaluation and playing potential. I think I understand where the question of tiger versus chicken comes into play: does one count high card points, come to less than 12, and decide that the hand isn't good enough for a 2/1. Or does one look at a 6-5 hand that has 6, maybe 7 theoretical losers, 26-27 zars, and decide that the best way to show a 6-5 is to starting bidding one's suits in the face of a potential total misfit? Is the point of the title that the chicken responds 1NT and the tiger responds 2 clubs (or 2 hearts)? Bad hand for 2/1 always GF players. DHL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
42 Posted May 7, 2006 Author Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 (edited) IMO, this hand is about hand evaluation and playing potential. I think I understand where the question of tiger versus chicken comes into play: does one count high card points, come to less than 12, and decide that the hand isn't good enough for a 2/1. Or does one look at a 6-5 hand that has 6, maybe 7 theoretical losers, 26-27 zars, and decide that the best way to show a 6-5 is to starting bidding one's suits in the face of a potential total misfit? Is the point of the title that the chicken responds 1NT and the tiger responds 2 clubs (or 2 hearts)?Yes, it is :)But also opener has his chance:1♠ 1NT 2♦ 2♥??or 1♠ 1NT2♦ 3♣?? Edited May 7, 2006 by 42 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted May 7, 2006 Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 Tiger, perhaps Tigrotto ! :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Double ! Posted May 7, 2006 Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 Tiger, perhaps Tigrotto ! :) Hey, Mauro Good to hear from you!! :-) DHL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Double ! Posted May 7, 2006 Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 Yes, it is :)But also opener has his chance:1♠ 1NT 2♦ 2♥??or 1♠ 1NT2♦ 3♣?? I'm not sure what chances for opener that your are referring to. As I understand it, a very common interpretation of a 1NT response followed by a suit rebid is to show a limited, one-suited hand that isn't good enough for other actions as they would tend to show stronger hands. Given this premise, I am not sure what action other than Pass you might want opener to take holding a relatively minimum hand (extra values for some posters, I know :) ) in the face of a potential misfit. 2NT by opener now shows a better hand or better trick-taking potential. A possible rebid might be 2 spades, but that seems unilateral and would likely be interpreted as showing some type of 6-4 hand. From opener's point of view, it might be important to get out of the bidding before getting into futher difficulty. DHL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 7, 2006 Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 <snip>But also opener has his chance:snip>1♠ 1NT 2♦ 2♥??or 1♠ 1NT2♦ 3♣??<snip> Hi, playing IMP's opener may raise 3Cto 4C, after having discovered a 9 card fit, holding prime cards and a singlton.Playing MP's, I dont think opener willbid on after 3C.Ask yourself, how to explain partner going down in 4C, getting -50 instead +110, for what? After a 2H from responder, which reasonvarant a move by opener?No fit no bid. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Double ! Posted May 7, 2006 Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 I am just curious:Is there anyone out there who would consider an initial response of 2 clubs, your 6-card suit?Resonding 1NT and then rebidding 3C after opener responds 2 diamonds would seem to bury the heart suit for good. DHL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bigmac Posted May 7, 2006 Report Share Posted May 7, 2006 tiger Scot here :blink: with my 6 loser hand I would bid 2c....3c from pdr...5c from me (fast arrival) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
chicken Posted May 8, 2006 Report Share Posted May 8, 2006 chicken :-) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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