Bidding In 2 Hands Today

[pbleighton]

Hand 1 - opponents silent. Partner (level Private)  opened 1D, I responded 2C (11pts - invitational), he rebid 2D, I had a 3325 shape and bid 2NT. He then bid 4NT. I thought for a while - Blackwood or invitational to 6NT?  From what I have read, 4NT is invitational to 6 after openings of 1NT and 2NT, and after 1 of a suit - 2NT/3NT, but I hadn't seen it described that way elsewhere, so I guesed Blackwood (he could have had a monster diamond suit). He meant it as a try for 6NT (he had 15 hcp, balanced, awfully weak for that).

How would you interpret 4NT in this sequence (or would you scratch your head and guess), and if you thought it was invitational, how many hcp would you do expect partner to have?

There were no hard feelings on this, but it was a pretty bad miscommunication, and I'm wondering what people think.

BTW - 3NT down 1 was the par result, and we were at 6NT down 3 (opps took their quick tricks), so we didn't get burned too badly :D

Hand 2 (different p - Expert). Opp opened 1H (both opps silent after that), partner doubled, I had 3 pts and 7C to the jack, and bid 2C. He jumped to 3NT.  He had the AK doubleton in clubs, and though clubs were established he couldn't get to dummy, and went down 2 or 3. This partner seemed to be a good player based other things I could see, but he bid 3NT with 18 hcp.  How many hcp would it take for you to bid 3NT in this situation?

[inquiry]

Hand 1.

1d 2c

2d 2n

4n

 

If 2d is passable and 2n is passable, 4n makes no sense. Generally, lacking specific partnership agreement, 4n on this should be quantatative imho. And with 11, your announced minimum, you should pass.  With 15 balanced, your partner should of course open 1NT (if playing 15-17)

 

Hand 2. You didn't say, was your partner hand balanced? Sounds like 4-3-4-2, or perhpas odd 4-4-3-2? What do yuo overcall 1NT with? Playing 15-17, then your partner with 18-19 would probably rebid a simple 2NT. This jump to 3NT calls for 20 or so. But then, of course, you probably should pull to 4/5 CLUBS anyway (not seeing the hands, it is difficult to be certain). After all, if you think your hand is entryless... you should pull.

[pbleighton]

1) Hand 2 - yes his hand was balanced. Doubleton C, no 5 card suit.

2) I had 7 clubs to the jack (next highest 8 or 9, I think), and a queen in a tripleton.  Give that, would you go to 4 or 5, or be chicken like me and pass?

3) I didn't know that someone with such a weak hand (and suit) was allowed to second guess such a strong and decisive bid.

[pbleighton]

Another thought - could 4C after 3NT be construed as Gerber?

[inquiry]

1) Hand 2 - yes his hand was balanced. Doubleton C, no 5 card suit.

2) I had 7 clubs to the jack (next highest 8 or 9, I think), and a queen in a tripleton.  Give that, would you go to 4 or 5, or be chicken like me and pass?

3) I didn't know that someone with such a weak hand (and suit) was allowed to second guess such a strong and decisive bid.

 

1) Balanced 18, 3NT is an overbid. 2NT would be enough.

 

2&3) well, i am a chicken, which is why i run from 3NT. Can you second guess stronger partner? Ask your self this, if partner opens 2NT (essentially what his jump to 3NT here shows) and you hold long CLUBS to the JACK and nothing else, do you bid 3NT? Of course not. The reason 20 opposite 3 doesn't make 3NT very often.  Besides you paid your entry fee, you get to use your own judgement.