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Meckwell after strong 1NT


kenrexford

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I have seen a recurring debate amongst people who play Meckwell, in principle, but disagree as to one specific advance. I am curious as to the "official" meaning.

 

1NT-2 shows, in Meckwell, clubs and a major. If responder passes (1NT-2-P-?), how does Meckwell define (1) 2 and (2) 2?

 

One side in the debate interprets 2 as natural, with 2 as pass-or-correct. The justification is that this approach enables a 2 escape (perhaps less important if Advancer is a passed hand and employs a weak 2 opening). The method for handling strong hands would then be the "invisible cuebid" of 2NT.

 

The other side of the debate uses 2 as the "asking bid," seeking the major, with 2 instead as natural. The theory here is to enable a rescue to 2 (again, see the caveat for weak 2). The theory also is supported by the refreshed ability to bid a natural 2NT, if that ever makes sense (balanced club raise???), and the cheaper auction for strong hands with a possible fit for a major.

 

Side one argues that a natural diamond call occurs twice as often, because 50% of the time that 2 is bid overcaller will have long hearts, reducing the chances of a long heart suit for advancer. Side two does not care about this, focusing more on the need for good constructive auctions when a fit presents itself. I'm sure there are other arguments on each side.

 

Anyone know the "official" answer? If there is not such an answer *which would be strange), any positions?

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I have seen a recurring debate amongst people who play Meckwell, in principle, but disagree as to one specific advance.  I am curious as to the "official" meaning.

 

1NT-2 shows, in Meckwell, clubs and a major.  If responder passes (1NT-2-P-?), how does Meckwell define (1) 2 and (2) 2?

 

One side in the debate interprets 2 as natural, with 2 as pass-or-correct.  The justification is that this approach enables a 2 escape (perhaps less important if Advancer is a passed hand and employs a weak 2 opening).  The method for handling strong hands would then be the "invisible cuebid" of 2NT.

 

The other side of the debate uses 2 as the "asking bid," seeking the major, with 2 instead as natural.  The theory here is to enable a rescue to 2 (again, see the caveat for weak 2).  The theory also is supported by the refreshed ability to bid a natural 2NT, if that ever makes sense (balanced club raise???), and the cheaper auction for strong hands with a possible fit for a major.

 

Side one argues that a natural diamond call occurs twice as often, because 50% of the time that 2 is bid overcaller will have long hearts, reducing the chances of a long heart suit for advancer.  Side two does not care about this, focusing more on the need for good constructive auctions when a fit presents itself.  I'm sure there are other arguments on each side.

 

Anyone know the "official" answer?  If there is not such an answer *which would be strange), any positions?

As well for Meckwell 2003 as 2005 2 are completely standard as stayman and transfers. 2NT differs acc. to version.

 

You can check the notes(28/2003 - 2/2005) from here: Meckwell Club

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I play Meckwell against strong NT, but we use 2 to ask for the Major overcaller does NOT have. 2M is a normal P/C ( wants to play 3 or 3 when overcaller doesn't have ). This way, responder can sign off in any Major, and if you have a 9+ card fit you usually can handle 3 or 2...

 

This method came from the rough two's we played a while ago. Invite hands or signoff in a Major went through 2.

 

When opps double on 2, RDbl asks the other Major and 2 becomes natural.

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