Al_U_Card Posted April 10, 2006 Report Share Posted April 10, 2006 [hv=d=n&v=e&s=sq75hada92cakt642]133|100|Scoring: IMP1♠ p 2♣ p2♠ p 3♠ p4♣ p 4♦ p5♦ p 5NT p6♣ all pass [/hv] The agreements in place were, 2/1 absolutely forcing to game.2 ♠ does not promise 6 just a minimum type unbalanced hand3♠ shows trump fit, extras and slam aspirations4♣ is a cue bid or secondary fit4 and 5 ♦ are q-bids So, what is 5NT looking for, and is this a good sequence to get to the right contract? The opening hand will be shown later. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted April 10, 2006 Report Share Posted April 10, 2006 How confident am I about my agreements, and what I cue bid?You say 4C is "cue bid or secondary fit". Well, we have the AK of the suit, so if it's a cue bid then it's a singleton. Is partner allowed to cue bid shortage in my first bid suit? If not, then it must mean "secondary fit" i.e. the Queen. (My agreement is that you are not allowed to cue shortage in partner's suit unless you are known to have all the tricks you could possibly need outside, and that certainly isn't the case here) So, if I know partner has a semi-fit for clubs, I didn't need to bid 4D, I could just have bid 5NT grand slam force. As it is, I almost never play 'choice of slam' bids with my most regular partner, and 5NT would still have been grand slam force, in which case partner's response - in my methods - shows the A or K or spades only, and I pass 6C. But what methods do you play here? I would guess partner thought 5NT was offering choice of 6C or 6S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted April 10, 2006 Report Share Posted April 10, 2006 I also do not allow cue-bids of singleton in partners suit, so 4!C shows queen. Over 4!C bid 4NT RKCB.. all you questions will be answered. Bid Grand if partner has two keycards (5!S -- maybe six, six clubs, 1 heart, 1 diamond, and possible heart ruff and red king, plenty of tricks to risk it. I think 5NT here should be grand slam force, and if partner bids 6!C I would not believe he has neither the spade Ace nor the spade king. Because he would have an awful lot of red honros KQ of heart, KQ of diamonds to come close to an opening bid and he didn't bid 3NT and or 2NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted April 10, 2006 Report Share Posted April 10, 2006 Hey, you sat down without discussing this very frequent bidding? How careless. ;) I would take 4 ♣ as a shortage. It SHOULDn´t be and with all my regular parts it wouldn´t be, but without discussion it is.5 ♦ shows a second round control and nothing in Hearts, but obviously something extra, else he could have bid 4 Spade.5 NT is still a grand slam try. After you establish Spades as trump, a "pick a suit" is just wastage of bidding space. But I think, it must be a very special Slam Try, called josephine. You had no good bid to ask for Spade Honours after the bidding surprisingly went on to 5 Diamond, so this should ask for Trumps.6 Clubs is the smallest possible answer, so I guess, he denied any spade Honour. This is impossible, so I now I must guess the final contract and guess 6 Spade. I think the bidding was fine till 4 Club. With all side aces, with a source of tricks and with a not well established partnership, you should just bid 4 NT, RCKB and placing the contract depending on pds answer. 4 Diamond led to nowhere. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted April 10, 2006 Author Report Share Posted April 10, 2006 [hv=s=sakt643h8dk6cqj83]133|100|[/hv] This was the second hand. 5 NT was taken as pick a slam so he picked clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted April 10, 2006 Report Share Posted April 10, 2006 At IMPs, I don't rebid 2♠; I splinter with 3♥. The 6-4 hand is massive for clubs. Most minimum 2♣ calls make you gin for 6. 7N can and should be bid with adequate agreements I think... Even in the subject auction, I would take 5N as GSF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Limey_p Posted April 11, 2006 Report Share Posted April 11, 2006 Why no blackwood? Responder could have, over 4♣. Opener bypassed it by bidding 5♦. I think opener's 5D bid promises no heart control, something like a low doubleton, so it is incorrect imo. And I'd expect 5N to be some sort of "pick a slam", because I thought it had to be a jump to be grand slam force. Andy Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted April 11, 2006 Report Share Posted April 11, 2006 I agree with Ben here: after 4♣ you better bid 4NT asking keycards, since you can easily bid 7NT when he has 2 keycards... Just make it easy on partner and yourself ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted April 11, 2006 Author Report Share Posted April 11, 2006 Thanks all, I really like Phil's idea of the H splinter. I also agree that no q-bidding was necessary after 4C and that RKCB was the way to go (as does my pard). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted April 13, 2006 Report Share Posted April 13, 2006 ♥ splinter after 2♠ is the standard move with 3 trumps and a long suit. You should had pictured partner's hand, 5♦ denies ♥ control, and you have the ace, and it is a slam try!. Partner has the minimum values possible for a slam try, so really finfing a hand where he bids 5♦ without ♠AK becomes impossible. BTW: Are you sure partner had singleton ♥? anyway on the given auction I would take 5NT as regular blackwood with ♠ fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted April 13, 2006 Report Share Posted April 13, 2006 After 4C, why would I bid 4D? 4NT or 5NT would be my choice. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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