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hrothgar

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IMPs Vul versus Vul

 

AQJ

Q5

KT75

AQJ8

 

(1 - X - (P) - 3

(P) - ???

 

 

I assume that there's not much debate regarding the initial double.

What's your rebid over partner's 3 advance?

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3N: wtp?

 

I doubled intending to rebid Notrump to show a hand too big to overcall 1N. How does 3N not show that hand? Sorry, but this seems like a non-problem. Is it part 1 of a multi-part? (I intend to bid 4 if he bids 4 minor next :D )

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I doubled intending to rebid Notrump to show a hand too big to overcall 1N. How does 3N not show that hand?

Well.. maybe because it might show..

 

AQ

xxx

KTxx

AJxx

 

The point is: even if 3NT only makes sense as 18-19 balanced, I'm pretty sure pard is capable of producing another hand for the same auction :huh:

 

Anyway, the answer is still the same: 3NT, wtp? B)

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Why on earth try to figure out what hand partner holds and then make the call that fits his hand? Is it not much easier to look at your own hand, make the call that fits your hand, and then allow partner, who sees his hand, to assess what he should do in that context?
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I'm not going to bid 3NT!!

 

If I need a black suit finesse it will be on, so I only need some moderate values for a slam and pd just jumped to 3h! I'm going to try 4NT over 3.

What is 4N, Luis? Natural? If so, it seems a bit of an overbid, given that partner will not have a hand on which he expected to make game opposite a 1=4=4=4 12 or 13 count (he should assume that you hold that kind of hand for you double and bid accordingly: 3 is not remotely forcing)

 

If it is keycard, your suit may prove a trifle inadequate to an 11 or 12 trick cpntract... after all, he would, should jump with xx K10xxx AQxx xx.. surely noone bids 2 with that?

 

But, more to the point: do you trust partner or not? If 3N describes your hand, as most say it does, why are you taking charge rather than trusting partner?

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I'm not going to bid 3NT!!

 

If I need a black suit finesse it will be on, so I only need some moderate values for a slam and pd just jumped to 3h! I'm going to try 4NT over 3.

What is 4N, Luis? Natural? If so, it seems a bit of an overbid, given that partner will not have a hand on which he expected to make game opposite a 1=4=4=4 12 or 13 count (he should assume that you hold that kind of hand for you double and bid accordingly: 3 is not remotely forcing)

 

If it is keycard, your suit may prove a trifle inadequate to an 11 or 12 trick cpntract... after all, he would, should jump with xx K10xxx AQxx xx.. surely noone bids 2 with that?

 

But, more to the point: do you trust partner or not? If 3N describes your hand, as most say it does, why are you taking charge rather than trusting partner?

4NT is RKCB in hearts of course.

I don't think 3NT shows this hand. Is pd expected to bid on over 3NT? I don't think so, he already said what he has with 3. So 3NT is a hand that wants to play 3NT and I think it's an undervaluation of this hand.

 

 

Luis

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Reminds me of a hand in MSC. I forget the exact details, but one hand doubled, the other showed invitational values, and the doubler bid a new suit. Much of the panel considered it obvious that the doubler had a hand too strong to overcall initially, but the Director felt he was showing a 5431 15 count with 3 card support.
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Partners 3 shows ~8-10 with 4 sometimes 5.

and is not forcing!

 

I my opinion 3NT now showed 19-21 HCP

and a good S stop and no 4H...

... just what i have.

 

Some have the meaning that a 3NT now is just a scrab to

NT, telling partner that my double was no double and now i want to play

3NT as he showed some live. there is no way to do this.

If you have a 3crd Double then you have to live with this.

 

Other methods do not work!

you have to limit your responses over a double

(0-7 no jump, 8-10 jump, 11+Q-bid)

and so you need a little disciplin in doubling.

 

Salokin

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For anyone interested, here are the complete hands.

Needless to say, 3N rolled home pretty easily.

 

[hv=d=s&v=b&n=s2h87643d964c9843&w=saqjhq5dkt75caqj6&e=s98hkt92daqj3ct75&s=skt76543hajd82ck2]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv]

 

I had a couple reasons for posting this hand:

 

1. I wanted to see whether anyone was able to post a convincing alternative to our auction

 

(1 - X - (P) - 3

(P) - 3NT - All pass

 

2. Its unclear to me whether this slam is necessarily biddable. If you reach slam, will you be able to stop short if East holds

 

98

K875

AQJ3

876

 

For example, Luis advocated an immediate jump to 4NT as RKCB in Hearts. I'll be curious to see what he recommends after partner's 5...

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Now partner knows where the strength and the HCP's are, so HE knows all finesses work, and HE can start the slam try...

It is YOU who is looking at two tenaces. YOU are the one who knows these finesses are working!

 

Besides, what's this nonsense of putting the onus of bidding a 29 hcp slam (without shortnesses!) on a pard who cannot possibly have extras? From pard's point of view, this might very well have an ace out and hang on a doomed diamond finesse.

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4N should be quantitative. Pard's subsequent 5 is a signoff over 4N.

 

Easy enough on paper anyway.

 

Whether or not the subject hand is worth an upgrade is a matter of opinion I guess. And whether or not the East hand is worth a pull of 3N with the nice 10 count is another matter altogether.

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2. Its unclear to me whether this slam is necessarily biddable. If you reach slam, will you be able to stop shirt if East holds

 

98

K875

876

AQJ3

An unlikely hand for partner Richard...

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2.  Its unclear to me whether this slam is necessarily biddable.  If you reach slam, will you be able to stop shirt if East holds

 

98

K875

876

AQJ3

An unlikely hand for partner Richard...

corrected...

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I admit that going beyond 3NT is not completely clear but with the black suit tenaces over opener I think I would never bid 3NT at the table so 4NT RKCB is just a way to go. When pd shows 2 I would just probably bid 6 offering a choice of slams planning to correct 6 to 6NT and hope for the best.

Maybe this is more a "feeling" problem than a rational one.

 

Luis

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If we want to construct an auction to slam, my suggestion would be:

 

(1)  x  (P)  3

(P)  3N  (P)  4N

(P)  5  (P)  5

(P)  6

 

 

4N is a mild stretch, but responder has a near max and the suit rates to be very useful. As most have noted, any hooks outside of will be onside. 30 point slams, if not off cashing tricks, are relatively easy to play AFTER an opp has made a natural one-level opening bid: you know, as declarer, where the cards are and you can often subject opener to considerable pressure.

 

If responder advances with 4N, doubler may decide to move, and if so, should do so by bidding 4 card suits up the line: any slam will probably play better in a 4-4 minor than in notrump. This approach reaches , and 6 is not a bad spot at all: with the black suits working, as they rate to do, we can count 3, 1, 5 and 3, and in fact, due to the internal texture of the trump suit, we are not really troubled by a 4-1 trump break unless are 7-1.

 

Would I get there? There is no way to answer that honestly, having seen the hands. Is the suggested auction pure result-driven? I don't think so but I do think that both partners would have to be in aggressive moods to reach slam.

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