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Is There a Right Way ?


hallway

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Last night we had the following hand .

 

Turns out that we were the only ones in the room to have bid the Slam ;D

 

Made us feel like a pair if dizzy teenagers of course ::)

 

However, now in the cold light of day we realise that with everyone else stopping in 4S that maybe our 'thinking' was flawed.

 

Ask THE BOYS says Robyn so :-

 

North- Dealer

N/S - Vul

 

North 73

K984

AK9843

5

 

East AKJ109862

A103

void

K10

 

South 54

J652

7

J87643

 

West Q

Q7

QJ10652

AQ92

 

So the question is - How SHOULD the bidding have gone ?

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EAST- Dealer

E/W - Vul

 

Q

Q7

QJ10652

AQ92

54 73

J652 K984

7 AK9843

J87643 5

AKJ109862

A103

void

K10

 

I hope you don't mind, I reformat the hand to fit the standard way of presenting hands... (rotated hands, dealer, and vul).

 

Ok, South is TOO good for opening bid of 4S. So the question is can you open this hand 2C (forcing) in your system? For me, the answer is a definite yes. For others, no. I will give my auction after 2C (EW passing, given the vul, if they bid Diamonds, we might just stop to get rich).

 

The problem with the hand, and the one that kept everyone else out of the slam, is that it is difficult for north (rotated) to evaluate how well his hand fits with a singleton spade. To get there you may need a convention to show, "this is our trump suit" and lets see where we are going. In which case, the singleton spade Queen is a good holding. Playing 2/1 GF or after 2C opening bid and a "waiting" but at least semi-positive 2D response, this is possible. After 2C, the jump to 3S is shows this meaning (self-sufficient suit, can play in six with this suit opposite a singleton)....

 

S N

2C 2D (waiting, 2H or 2S would be negative)

3S 4C (3S = sets trumprs)

4NT 5C (4C = cue-bid, 4NT = RKC for spades)

5D 5N (5C= 1 or 4)(5D = trump queen ask)

6S Pass (5N=trump queen, no king)

 

Over 5N, South could bid 6C to ask for club queen, but you still have a heart loser to deal with. (blackwood with void is generally not a good idea, but after your partner's 4C cue-bid, you know he has club ACE, so it is ok).

 

If you can't open 2C with this hand, you will have to open 1S (again, way to good for 4S).

 

S N

1S 2D (2D*= game force)

3S 4C (3S= self sufficient suit, slam try)(4C=Que)

4H 4S (4H=Q)(4S= no control in diamonds)

4NT ... as above

 

If 3S just shows extra value, but not self-sufficient suit, then I would probably still bid 3S, then 4S or 4H over partners next bid (4S over 4D, 4H over 4C or 3NT). There is no sure way to get to the slam.

 

S N

1S 2D

3S 4C 4C = gosh, no heart stopper

4H 4S 4H = must be cue, 4S = ok, still no heart stopper

5C 5S 5C = cue-bid, 5S = can't cue bid either red suit

6S Pass 6S = no DAK, no HK, but enough for 2/1. This should make

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If the bidding were to start 1S 2D, then nothing much would make me stop short of slam as opener. If the bidding started 2C, then nothing much would make me stop short of slam as responder.

 

A fairly straightforward sequence would be something like

 

1S 2D

3S 4C

4H 4S

5C 5S

6S

 

3S sets trumps, 4C is a cue bid, 4H is a cue bid, 4S denies diamond control, 5S denies Heart control.

 

If they open the bidding with 1D, then I can foresee something like

 

(1D) X 3NT

6S

 

Eric

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Isn't there anyone who opens 1D with the East hand??? If you can open, it's no problem at all to find 6S. But if East opens 1D, how do you bid it? In my system, it goes:

 

(1D)

2D - 2H Multi: weak Major or Strong relay

3S - 4C strong (9-10 tricks) S control

4D - 4H control asks control H

5C - 5H control H and C half control H

6S

 

With Double, we promise 8 tricks, but this hand is 9+ tricks worth I guess.

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