Jump to content

Assess the "Blame"


kenrexford

Recommended Posts

[hv=d=w&v=n&w=sxxhakj9xdqxxxckx&e=sxxxhxxdk10xxcqjxx]266|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]

 

The auction was 1-P-1-P-1NT-P-P-P, making +90. Defense to 2S probably yields +50. 3 may score +110.

 

East felt that West should bid out the pattern (2). The good hearts support this argument, although the poor diamonds go against it.

 

West felt that East's 1 call induced 1NT, as expected spade values opposite a doubleton are poor for suit contracts, and increased spade length decreases expected fit potential.

 

Thoughts?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

No -- you saw this right. 1S might have some tactical merit, but then it seems that one should expect 1NT and not pipe up if 2D might make 3D. I played with a pro who bid 1S and then chastised me for 1NT, claiming that I did not just bid my hand out. I found this laughable, but to some degree I was concerned as to whether 2D might actually be better, even if partner held real spades.
Link to comment
Share on other sites

Guest Jlall

1N seems normal by east, and 2D normal by west. I don't understand either bid and neither seems in the realm of possibility to me.

 

1S seems to be the worse bid. It is just a masterminding bid with no way to control the auction.

 

1N doesn't make sense to me either, I can see it when the hearts are very weak and the doubletons strong so that you don't want to play a 5-2 fit, but here you want to play a 5-2 fit, you want to play diamonds if you have a diamond fit, you want partner to play it if hes about to bid 2N/3N, you don't want to distort your hand and miss a diamond slam, etc etc.

 

I give both players 100 %

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Funny tactic. IMO, bidding 1 can possibly have some merit (if pard does not raise to 3 or 4 ; and if the bid does not go as it did, with the last opponent doubling with good spades).

OTOH, if one starts messing around, shouldn't be surprised if the partner rebids 1N (which I'd do 100 times out of 100 with the posted hand).

IMHO, if you had clubs and diamonds exchanged, and you rebid 2, the pro would have complained that the bidding was a strong indication for 1N rebid :lol:

Link to comment
Share on other sites

It sure looked to me like the average expectancy from partner, if he passes 1NT, is 4234 pattern, in which case 1NT seems decent. If we happen to have a diamond fit, the likely scenario is 4243, in which case a competitive 2C (get them off 1NT theory) will allow a delayed 2D, which is more passable (no courtesy corrections). 2D, immediately, creates more of a problem, with 2H the end contract most often.

 

With 2524, I can understand 2C more, for these reasons, as this call might be necessary to legitimately compete to 3C in a minor-suit battle.

 

BTW, I think the pro was p'd because I caught him in a $100 bet. I claimed that 6NT was cold at a certain point if RHO held the key red cards on this hand:

 

[hv=d=s&v=n&n=sak9xxh10xdakcakxx&s=sqxxhkq9xdj10xxcqx]133|200|Scoring: MP[/hv]

 

I had opened South 1 and ended up in 6NT by South. The lead of the heart Ace won, of course, and West switched to a diamond. When I discovered that spades split 4-1, East holding 10xxx (West pitching a club), I tried clubs, unsuccessfully. Now, on the diamond Ace, East dropped the Queen, bringing in the slam.

 

I noted that it was cold so long as East held the heart Jack and diamond Queen, at this point. The pro argued, and I put $100 on the table. After a very lengthy discussion, he finally agreed, but asked if I jettisoned the heart 10, which I did at trick one. He welched, BTW.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Easts 1 bid is not a good bid, but than no psyche bid is a good bid.

 

East knows that NS probably hold the majoraty of points (at least about half of the points) and most likely have a fit, so they can allways overbid on the same level.

 

This is MP, you prefer NT to playing minors. This is non vul. and -1 is a good result, if opps don't enter the bidding they won't dbl you at low level.

 

There is only a 7card fit in for your side.

 

What can happen:

1) West bids a minor, no problem West is weak and East can pass that with fit.

2) West can bid 1NT, no problem just pass that.

3) West raises to 2. Problem! West is strong and holds , but now there is no fit and EW are not strong enough for 3NT. So East can pass that too.

 

So I don't agree with Justin, East is in control of the auction.

 

1NT by west is a perfectly normal bid. It is also the best contract for most hands east should hold! Holding 18hcp and only an 8card fit making 3 is lucky.

 

Edit:

After you psych, you never try to win the post-mortem.

I agree with that, East has no reasn to complain.

Neither do you do that after you have master-minded (1N instead 2D).

 

Arend

I don't think 1NT is master minding, it is a perfectly normal MP bid.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...