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The man (LHO) open his 1 on the 3rd position (NVul vs Vul) , partner take T/O double ,RHO pass:

p p 1 DB

P ?

the hand which i hold:

Q86

AJT92

9853

4

Many choice to me now:pass/1NT/2/1,they are all the possible practical bidding.but , which is the best?

commentate if u want,thanks.

 

 

this is the actual question appeared on the fujian province(china),ilka effector will be started by each way.

I will proceed after this question.

 

regards

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pass. I don't like the AJ109x, both KQ (probably) behind me. Hearts are useless for us, and outside hears I don't have any usable honor. Pass will score probably some small plus (-1 I assume). Even 1x= might be good for us (better then 3NTx :-) ).
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I should take the risk to pass at MP but will definitively bid 1NT at imps.

 

Alain

This seems strange to me. A pass is MUCH riskier in MP. In MP -160 will likely be a zero. At imps, you haven't lost much. Like if youre going set a trick in 1N, you will only lose a couple of imps anyways. Granted the reward is also higher in MP, but I do not see a pass as risky at all in imps. We aren't Xing them into game.

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thanks for every standpoint,and i surprise nobody mention 2 or 1.

 

the 1st table (they name it main table) is a pair of sibling,they learnd bridge from 1991 and study it 5hours per day during 2001-2004,and win the 2005 in their province.

the younger north bid the 1,then following:

p p 1 DB

P 1 P 2

P 2 P 3

P 3N P 4

P ?

 

Would you jump to 6 as the younger brother did?i will provide 4hand after this.would you help them to analyse?thanks.

 

 

regards

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no any reply for it, i am sadness.

this is the 4hands:[hv=n=sq86hajt92d9865c4&w=st542h65dq2cj9653&e=sk93hkq873dt3ckt7&s=saj7h4dakj74caq82]399|300|SOUTH stop leading,fineses ,ruff ,fineses ,pitch on A,ruff after A,back,ruff 4th ,then lucky to ruff back by jack.

make it[/hv]

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I would have passed. Even if there is a slam, it's a bit difficult to get there, and there is no certainty you are going to make it. 1X is 3 off, which is a good one, in any case.

 

If I choose not to pass (say with worse intermediates) I prefer to bid 1, though. It is the most sure fit, and I don't want to crucify partner if his double comes from 4-1-3-5 (not to say from 4-2-2-5, which is a possibility).

 

I'm bringing a honor in spades, 1 A and ruffing values in clubs. Iwould not refuse playing 4 in a Moysian fit, if partner is strong enough

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Personally, I would not bid 1S (avoid bidding 3 card suit when there are other sensible alternatives). But I appreciate this bid (Suit oriented values, ruffing potential, honor third in spade, may score better than NT or diamonds in MP).

 

However, I don't like the 2H cue-bid-followed-by-3NT continuation. Advancer has a great hand for diamonds and he probably has not shown his fit yet. This sequence seems to me not particularly encouraging in exploring diamonds slam. I guess cue-bid is strength showing & seeking H stopper (default meaning of cue bid), & 3NT express doubt about the strain (contrast with direct 3NT leap). Though maybe played otherwise, I am sure mort random expert partnership would define the sequence this way. If the meaning of cue bid is fit-showing, then every bid seems reasonable(except the agreements, how does the pair explore 3NT if lacking a general-strength showing cue)

 

I think if advancer splinter 4C over 2D, then the slam will be reached more effortlessly.

 

Btw, if I were doubler, I would bid 2S over 2H, as I will not hide 3-card major support for long.

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