pclayton Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 [hv=d=n&v=n&s=saxxhxdkj9xxxcxxx]133|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv] Pard opens 1♥, 1♠ by RHO. Your call? If you pass, pard reopens with a double and RHO now places the 4♠ card on the table. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 Do you have an agreement what the reopening double shows? Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 I would double at the first turn, planning to correct a club bid to diamonds. This hand seems too promising to want to sell out to some number of spades, and getting in right away is usually better than deciding later. If opponents bump the auction and partner competes in clubs at a high level, this is pretty surely 5-5 or better and I have a decent dummy for clubs. Having passed at first turn, I will bid 5♦ over 4♠. Of course, this might change a +50 into a -100, but it's also quite possible that one (or both?) of these games is making. I think the IMP scoring favors cheap insurance here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 This depends if you play negative free bids or not. I'd just bid 2♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mikeh Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 A good hand for nfb: but I don't play them and don't consider the possible gain on this hand type to be worth the downside. As it is, I am happy with my pass and the subsequent auction. I am delighted to bid 5♦, and I expect to make it. I've been wrong about those expectations before :P RHO's bids are a little weird, but I am not going to worry about that (maybe I should) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MickyB Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 This depends if you play negative free bids or not. I'd just bid 2♦. I'd bid 2♣, transfer to ♦ :P I'm not at all confident about bidding 5♦ - partner's shape isn't terribly well defined. I guess I have to now, though. I agree with the initial pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 I would X. Having passed I would bid 5D and hope pard isnt 1525 :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted February 16, 2006 Author Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 We don't play NFB (good hand for it certainly, but I don't care for them; especially with the modern "5 points is an overcall" trend). I wanted to check the pulse of those that think a negative double can be made with a single suiter too weak for a free bid. Seems many play it (I don't in my regular partnership). I forgot to mention something; 1♥ is Precision-based; 10-15 or so. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 If I don't play transfers (which I do) or negative freebids (which I don't) then I do make a negative double here. How do people propose to catch up after partner reopens and RHO passes? After passing I think 5D is easy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 2D, if you play neg. free bids, else dbl, indenting to bid 2D, I will pass 2H. If I have passed the first time, I will pass the 2nd time as well, ... you are not missing game, sincepartner is limited, and it is unclear if 4S makes.afterall you have 1 1/2 defencive tricks and partneropened. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luis Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 Not enough for 2♦ I hate the singleton in pd's suit.But I have some values so I would choose a negative double. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 I think you can risk a negative double on your first turn because your suit is diamonds. You can't if you reverse the minors because you can never correct if opener rebids diamonds at a high level. If I pass first, I will bid 5♦ next; not confidently, but I think I should get in. I obviously know that defending 4♠ could be the winner with a singleton heart and ♠A. Good chance of heart ruff(s). I'm in the non NFB camp although this would be a good hand for it. It's wrong to change the system you are comfortable with just because a hand like this comes up. You can always construct hands that are suitable for one method and bad for another ... and vice versa of course. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joshs Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 Well I would probably negative x the first time, noting that at one point Michael and Zia played a 3m jump as about 7-9 with a good 6 card suit in this situation. Ahh the perfect bid! Anyway, assuming I passed 1S I would pass 4S also, in deference to my stiff heart, but its very close and I am known for not bidding enough. This is probably a hand I would decide based on what I know about my opponent and table feel. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted February 16, 2006 Report Share Posted February 16, 2006 So, with a limited 1H opener, 1NT after a 1S overcall is or is not forcing? It might be nice to be able to play in 2C or 2D if you can swing it. 1NT might be okay too if it was not forcing. Once he jumps to 4S that is another kettle of fish..... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted February 17, 2006 Author Report Share Posted February 17, 2006 Your pard (me) held: void, K9xxx, AQxx, AJTx. I can live with the initial pass, if its part of your agreements, but I think its criminal to sell out to 4♠. 5♦ has to be right at IMPs. LHO held: KQJTxxxx, ATx, void, Kx (sneaky bastard). It actually takes a club lead to beat 6♦ with the A♥ coming down. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joshs Posted February 17, 2006 Report Share Posted February 17, 2006 Your pard (me) held: void, K9xxx, AQxx, AJTx. I can live with the initial pass, if its part of your agreements, but I think its criminal to sell out to 4♠. 5♦ has to be right at IMPs. LHO held: KQJTxxxx, ATx, void, Kx (sneaky bastard). It actually takes a club lead to beat 6♦ with the A♥ coming down. Well personally I feltxx AQxxx Qxx AxxWas more likely than your actual hand, and my 3 dead clubs scared me...but what do I know? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdeegan Posted February 17, 2006 Report Share Posted February 17, 2006 :lol: I would have doubled at my first opportunity. With a six bagger in the higher ranking of the unbid suits, my order of battle is: 2 of the suit shows at least an SAYC 2/1 (shaded just a tad), a negative double shows the in-between hand (as shown in this problem), and the lowest is a pre-emptive jump shift indicating (at best) AQ10xxx and out. Does this sound OK to you? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted February 17, 2006 Report Share Posted February 17, 2006 I would bid 2D over 1S. I don't play NFB (so 2D is forcing), but I am in the light 2/1 school and this is fine. That'll wake partner up.... I don't play these methods, but if you think double is correct on this hand, what is the difference between doubling and bidding 3D over partner's 2H bid, and bidding 2D then 3D over partner's 2H bid? Both end up at the 3-level opposite a minimum opening. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted February 17, 2006 Report Share Posted February 17, 2006 I would bid 2D over 1S. I don't play NFB (so 2D is forcing), but I am in the light 2/1 school and this is fine. That'll wake partner up.... I don't play these methods, but if you think double is correct on this hand, what is the difference between doubling and bidding 3D over partner's 2H bid, and bidding 2D then 3D over partner's 2H bid? Both end up at the 3-level opposite a minimum opening. I don't like the treatment either, but the difference is that starting with 2♦ you have shown 10-12 points, while starting with double you have shown less. Arend Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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