dosxtres Posted February 2, 2006 Report Share Posted February 2, 2006 Hi all What's the natural standard meaning in 2/1 for this bid? 1major 2major2NT Can it be an invitation to 3NT with a 15-17 balance count? Ty all Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
coyot Posted February 2, 2006 Report Share Posted February 2, 2006 Definitely... the 2M response says roughly 6-9 HCP, so with a balanced hand and 5card to develop, 3NT might be a good contract. Responder with ruffing power and sharp values would go to major game, with bad shape and good points bid 3NT, otherwise decide by scoring (I would prefer 3M at IMP scoring, definitely). In the long run, you'll find out that it pays off to use 2NT as one or another type of help-suit game exploration, based on the fact that 15-17 hands with 5M are way too infrequent to give up a good sophisticated way to explore possible games on marginal point counts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben42 Posted February 2, 2006 Report Share Posted February 2, 2006 Most will play this as a general game try. Partner will try to evaluate his hand in light of his previous bid. It is forcing to 3♠ and leaves open the possibility of 3NT for the final contract. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted February 2, 2006 Report Share Posted February 2, 2006 If your 1NT includes a 5-card major, it is obviously not 15-17 balanced. Rather 18 balanced or 17 semi-balanced (5422 pattern) with "stuff" in the doubletons. I prefer 2NT for another purpose, but that's beside the point in this context. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted February 2, 2006 Report Share Posted February 2, 2006 Playing Acol I would definitely use this as showing a strong NT, but probably in the 16-18 variety as I would pass most 15 counts. Playing SAYC or 2/1, a lot would depend on if I open 1NT with a 5332 hand in the appropriate range. If not, then I would use a 2NT try for that. Else, there are a lot of other options all depending on agreements. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MickyB Posted February 2, 2006 Report Share Posted February 2, 2006 Playing Acol I would definitely use this as showing a strong NT, but probably in the 16-18 variety as I would pass most 15 counts. IMO you should be passing 15-16 and some 17s, the reason Acol uses light 2/1s is to reach game opposite 15-16 flat. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted February 2, 2006 Report Share Posted February 2, 2006 A bad 16 maybe, but with 16 opposite 9 and a fit, I will want to be in game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MickyB Posted February 2, 2006 Report Share Posted February 2, 2006 Which is why partner 2/1s with a half-decent 9 count. Particularly if it has a partial fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MickyB Posted February 2, 2006 Report Share Posted February 2, 2006 Ok, I managed to forget the auction (was thinking it was 1M:1N, 2N) but I still think 15-16 should be passing 2M. A 9 count should make a limit raise with 4 card support or a 2/1 with 3 card support. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MickyB Posted February 2, 2006 Report Share Posted February 2, 2006 Back to the original question, which was presumably based on strong NT + 5cM - 2NT is natural, about 16-17. Could be 5332, could be 5422 where 2NT is a better description than bidding your 2nd suit (typically will have doubleton honours and/or Axxx/xxxx in the 2nd suit) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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