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Bidding question


skilldave

What would you bid?  

28 members have voted

  1. 1. What would you bid?

    • 5D
      18
    • 6D
      4
    • 4N
      2
    • X
      0
    • Other
      4


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[hv=d=n&v=b&s=stxhxdq9xxckqjxxx]133|100|Scoring: ??[/hv]

 

1S (3H) pass pass

4D (4H) ?

 

 

problem is if pt has 2 aces, 4N will take you past the safe 5D. and Ac AKd AS and 6 will be cold, and this is very possible holding given the 4D bid.

 

Anyway which bid do you think is best, and does mp/imp scoring affect it

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I'll go with 6, although obviously this could be too high. The determining factor for me is the lack of a heart raise. If partner actually has two hearts (as seems fairly likely from the failure to raise 3 to 4) this makes partner's 4 balance that much sounder. Note that this hand also makes 6:

 

AKxxxx

xx

AKxxx

-

 

If partner is only 5-5 in the pointed suits, then partner needs substantial extras to bid this way (especially if not stiff heart). Silly heart honors like the king or queen don't count either. So I think AKQxx and AKxxx is basically a dead minimum, and would be somewhat surprised if partner didn't have a round suit ace (or club void).

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I'd like 5 if I held the Ace, but not with my actual hand. Partner is entitled to play us for some values, and while my hand is probably better than he expects, I doubt that I am a full trick better than he hoped for...there being a real difference between hope and expectation.

 

5 for me.

 

BTW, I expect that I don't have to win the match on this board, if imps, because anyone who overcalls 3 and then bids 4 is probably a bad player.

 

I make the same bid at imps and mps. You should not vary your slam bidding philosophy at imps compared to mps in the same way as you vary game bidding. The big difference timps is not the frequency of bidding slam but choosing the safest slam rather than the highest scoring.

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4NT cannot be a request for aces (unless you want to postulate that someone who passed after 1-(3) can ask for aces (I'd not have passed, btw: the hand is worth anegative double, IMO, with the good fit in the minor and the tolerance for spades).

 

4NT should be a generic cue bid (certainly with heart stopper) in support of diamonds.

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4NT cannot be a request for aces (unless you want to postulate that someone who passed after 1-(3) can ask for aces (I'd not have passed, btw: the hand is worth anegative double, IMO, with the good fit in the minor and the tolerance for spades).

 

4NT should be a generic cue bid (certainly with heart stopper) in support of diamonds.

agree 100% with Kalvan. When partner shows probably 11 cards in 2 suits, to show KQ in a side suit doesn't work. Also for me, as Mike said, 5!c means A and absence of control (with 2nd round control in and 1st in , i'd bid 6 or, better, 6), so the bidding of 4nt , which cant be rkcb in this sequence,is the more descriptive: support and 2nd round control in and

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4NT invite slam ,i agree ,but what is qualification?

strength?control?honor trump card? or special suiter: control?

 

 

5 is cuebid, i agree;and it denies control almost,i agree too.

the cuebid shows control on and hint lack on other.He passed 3 then invite slam with 2card ,which hand he hold?

 

for 2 example:

x

Ax

xxxx

Axxxxx

bid 4NT now?

 

x

xxx

KQxx

Axxxx

5 apparently.

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ok thanks for the views. I chose 6D and kinda knew when I was bidding it, 5D was probably going to avoid a disaster more often than not and if pt had the right hand then we'd just miss 6D. however being in a punty mood I went for the 6D, and was wondering just how 'bad a bid' it was, as my pick-up pt didn't like it one bit :P

 

pt had

[hv=s=saqxxxhk9daktxxct]133|100|[/hv]

 

(and yes the 3H bidder was a weak player ;))

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4NT invite slam ,i agree ,but what is qualification?

strength?control?honor trump card? or special suiter: control?

 

 

5 is cuebid, i agree;and it denies control almost,i agree too.

the cuebid shows control on and hint lack on other.He passed 3 then invite slam with 2card ,which hand he hold?

 

for 2 example:

x

Ax

xxxx

Axxxxx

bid 4NT now?

 

x

xxx

KQxx

Axxxx

5 apparently.

In the 1st example, 5nt= first round controll in both and ;

in 2nd 5 and over partner's 5 (it's difficult he can bid more w/o KQ), 5nt as grand slam ty. I'm not afraid of xxx, since pard has singleton or void for sure.

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4NT invite slam ,i agree ,but what is qualification?

strength?control?honor trump card? or special suiter: control?

I don't like to get too specific, because you don't have room.

I would just play that 4NT = a good 5D bid.

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:) 5. Chances are my pretty club holding will be little better than six small in a diamond contract, so I don't have that great of a hand. Partner does show a great playing hand, and we might actually make six, but I think the odds are severely against that. Partner holds only 2 or 3 cards outside his suits, and the odds favor a doubleton heart, and the other live possibility is a 1-1 'mirror' holding - not good for our offense. A 'free' 5 call strikes me as 'just right' - thank you for bidding 4 RHO.
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