lenze Posted October 10, 2003 Report Share Posted October 10, 2003 Just Curious: How does your system handle this? You hold S – 5 4H – VOIDD – AKT863C – AKT75 Partner deals, vulnerable, and opens 1NT (15-17) For the record, partner’s hand was S – AKQ2H – KT3D – Q97C – Q86 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luis Posted October 10, 2003 Report Share Posted October 10, 2003 I'm sure there're ad-hoc methods that can do fantastic on this hand, but I'll try with a standard approach (using 4 way transfers) 1N 2n (xfer to d)3c (Hxx or 4 cards) 3h (shortage)3s (cuebid) 4c (cuebid)4s (cuebid) 5c (cuebid)6c (cQ or xx) 7d After a transfer to a minor I play 3M bid as showing shortage, maybe a 1st cuebid in a slamish hand or looking for a 3NT game exposing shortage in case 5m is better than 3N. In this hand over 3h opener has an easy 3s cuebid and responder can ceubid 4c, opener cuebids 4s, not 4h since the hK is not good facing shortness. Responder bids 5c thus showing AK of clubs and opener can cuebid the cQ beutifully so responder has an automatic 7d bid knowin opener has the dQ or 4 cards for his initial super-accpetance of the transfer. Hey this worked! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted October 10, 2003 Report Share Posted October 10, 2003 Luis auction works wonders, but might miss a club fit. The auction he gave would be bid at my table too if I respond 2NT. However, I also play 1NT-3D as at least 5-5 in the minors and game force. So I think I would start that way. The disadvantage is the minor "fit" is not disclosed as effectively. I can envision... 1NT 3D3S 4H 4S 4N (RKCB - with two suit agreement)5C 5H (5C = 1/4 key cards, 5H is queen ask)6N 7DPass 5H is asking for queen, and is grand slam try, the responses are.. 5S = lower queen (club); 5N = higher queen (diamond), 6C/6D = no queen this is our trump suit, and in theory, 6H would be both queens. Here I improvised a 6N bid to show both queens and allow responder to pick his longer minor as with 3-3 I have no preference. (BTW, after 3S, 4S, responder knows openers one key card is the spade ACE.. also over 3S, 5H as exclusion blackwood is possible, but leaves no room to investigate. Maybe instead of cue-bid 4H should be exclusion blackwood. For more on two suit agreement (After one NT and responder showing two long suits, it is always a two suit agreement auction)... see http://www.kantarbridge.com and read about kantar keycard blackwood. ben Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lenze Posted October 10, 2003 Author Report Share Posted October 10, 2003 Hi Ben and Luis:I like both of your auctions. Here is the sequence my partner and I used. North South1NT 2C* 2D** 2S***3D**** 3H*****3S***** 4C*****4D(Marking Time) 5C*****5NT(GSF) 7D * 2C = Stayman or slam try in diamonds** 2D = Denies 4 Hearts*** 2S = Forget the majors, it’s diamonds I’m interested in**** 3D = Qxx or xxxx in diamonds***** Cue-bids Note that if opener held 2 small diamonds, the response over 2S would have been 3NT. Now 4C by responder would show interest in a club slam. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted October 12, 2003 Report Share Posted October 12, 2003 Just Curious: How does your system handle this? You hold S – 5 4H – VOIDD – AKT863C – AKT75 Partner deals, vulnerable, and opens 1NT (15-17) For the record, partner’s hand was S – AKQ2H – KT3D – Q97C – Q86 The way we bid is as follows:1NT - 2C 15-17 relay2S - 3C 4-card S relay3NT - 4S 4-3-3-3 RKC D5C - 5D 1/4 keycard CAB S5H - 5S nothing or AKQ what is it?6C - 7D AKQ Jipie OR 1NT - 3S 15-17 RKC D4C - 4H 1/4 keycard CAB S4S - 4NT nothing or AKQ what is it?5D - 7D AKQ Jipie We have 2 methods to bid this slam. We can use some kind of extended stayman, just to find out about partner's shape (1). If we don't have slam interest, we bid something describing of our own hand. Here it's clear you just need soms S tricks, so we'll probably use the second bidding sequence, just asking about keycards and controls in S (2). The last sequence is probably the safest, because if partner has nothing in S, we go 6D-1, and with the 2nd bidding sequence we can still stay at the safe 5D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted October 12, 2003 Report Share Posted October 12, 2003 we play weak nt, so it'd go: 1C : 1D1NT* : 3D**4C*** : 5H****5S : 7D * 14-16** slam interest either minor*** 4 in both OR 3 to H in both**** XRKC responder would rather play in diamonds, and knows the double fit should make the grand (if opener doesn't have spade K) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Poky Posted November 3, 2003 Report Share Posted November 3, 2003 S – 54H – -D – AKT863C – AKT75 S – AKQ2H – KT3D – Q97C – Q86 I use relay structure with very strong hands over 1NT opening... 1NT 2C - ®2D - No 4H 2H - ®2S - 4S 2NT - ®3H - 4333 3S - Control ask3NT - 0-4 4C - Spiral scan trigger4D - No spade A/K or AKQ in spades 4H - ®4NT - No diamond A/K 5C - ®5D - No club A/K 5H - ®5S - No heart Q 5NT - ®6H - diamond Q, club Q, no spade J 7D - Ty partner! :) Poky Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben47 Posted November 3, 2003 Report Share Posted November 3, 2003 1NT - 2NT (minors)3C (preference) - 4H (XRKC)4S (1/4) - 4NT (Queen?)5H*(yes and KS) - 5S (Queens?)6NT (both) - 7D (thanks!) *5C = no, 6C = yes no king, 5D = yes and KD, 5H = yes and KS, 5S = yes and both Ks 1NT - 2NT (minors)3D (preference) - 4H (XRKC)4S (1/4) - 4NT (Queen?)5H* (yes and KS) - 5S (Queens?)6NT (both) - 7D (thanks!) *5D = no, 6D = yes no king, 5C = yes and KD, 5H = yes and KS, 5S = yes and both Ks Just in case you were wondering why 2NT is minors:2S is either invitational to 3NT (asks min/max) or signoff in 3C/D2NT is both minors3m asks 3NT bid with top honor in that suit Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bhugi Posted November 21, 2003 Report Share Posted November 21, 2003 I'm sure there're ad-hoc methods that can do fantastic on this hand, but I'll try with a standard approach (using 4 way transfers) 1N 2n (xfer to d)3c (Hxx or 4 cards) 3h (shortage)3s (cuebid) 4c (cuebid)4s (cuebid) 5c (cuebid)6c (cQ or xx) 7d After a transfer to a minor I play 3M bid as showing shortage, maybe a 1st cuebid in a slamish hand or looking for a 3NT game exposing shortage in case 5m is better than 3N. In this hand over 3h opener has an easy 3s cuebid and responder can ceubid 4c, opener cuebids 4s, not 4h since the hK is not good facing shortness. Responder bids 5c thus showing AK of clubs and opener can cuebid the cQ beutifully so responder has an automatic 7d bid knowin opener has the dQ or 4 cards for his initial super-accpetance of the transfer. Hey this worked! I do exactly as your way, but 3H's meaning is cue bid also. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trpltrbl Posted January 4, 2004 Report Share Posted January 4, 2004 I also play 3 of a minor over NT opening as showing GF hand with at least 5-5 in minors. But I am playing around rite now with bidding 1 NT -3 SP as Slamforcing in minors. 3SP forces 3 NT and then y start describing r hand.3NT- 4CL = single suited CL hand 4 D = single suited D hand 4 H/SP = both minors and short in the bid major.Like I said still working on it, but seems to work very good, since trf to minor now only has to cover all weak and invitational hands. Mike ;D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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