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Great hand, but ...


Walddk

  

35 members have voted

  1. 1. Great hand, but ...

    • 2D
      20
    • 2H
      1
    • 2NT
      3
    • 3H
      4
    • 4H
      7
    • Other
      0


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I'm sorry to be so simple-minded, but pd could have a yarborough and won't have 10/good 9 points, and I am 4432 with 22 points. I bid 4H here, as I would at the table  :P

 

If pd has the right hand for slam, he will know what to do.

 

Peter

You're right: Partner will KNOW exactly what to do after 4. He's going to pass almost regardless of hand type because there isn't enough bidding space to make any kind of intelligent decision.

 

How is partner supposed to devine that

 

93

Q832

9873

QJ3

 

Is golden

 

But

 

763

J873

A72

K74

 

doesn't offer good play for 6

 

Mark me down for 2 Please note: I don't consider step responses showing HCP remotely standard (or particularly useful)

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3

 

With a little bit of help, say 5 hearts to the Q, or 4 hearts to the Q, with hearts 3-2, and some fillers in Spades (J 10) 4 can make. There will be no way for pard to know the J 10 of Spades are important, but the trump Q and J and length will be obvious.

 

I don't think 4 opposite a Yarborough with 4 hearts will make.

You have a club loser, a dimaond loser, and will need 3 leads from pards hand to pick up the KQ of diamonds for no loss plus take the Spade finesse.

 

RHO probably has at least 12 HCP. There are at most 6 HCP outstanding.

Pard may very well have only 4 Hearts and 3 HCP( maybe the Queen of Clubs, ouch).

 

Pard is showing around 0-7 HCP and 4+ hearts.

 

Its not uncommon to overbid with monster hands, only to go down when pard doesn't have enough.

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Richard:

 

1. What is your auction for finding a slam with

♠ 93

♥ Q832

♦ 9873

♣ QJ3

after a 2D response? I'm sure you have one,

I'm just curious.

 

Peter

I doubt that I can come up with a good auction to find slam with the hand in question. I'm not even sure that I want to be in slam with these two hands...

 

Myy main intention was to dispute your assertion that partner is well positioned to make an intelligent decision after a blast to 4

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I'm going with 2. If partner insists, I might leave this in 3, but on the other hand slam isn't out of the picture.
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I'm finding myself too easily persuaded here...I had one person tell me that 4 was an underbid, so I decided I would definitely bid 4 and not 3; Now Roland has told me he would bid 2, so I've decided that 4 is insane and 3 is just right :P

 

Whether 2 is reasonable depends upon its lower limit, which in turn depends on the range for 1. For me 2 would be a definite underbid, but I can imagine a style in which it is normal.

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A practical 4 for me. Might this go down? Yeah, sure. But 4 has play opposite Qxxx of heart and out, or five small hearts and out. I'm not going to stop short of game on this hand.

 

Could we have slam? Well, it's possible. And I don't really expect partner to bid slam over 4. But there are plenty of fairly decent hands for partner that don't make slam (say xxx QJxxx xxx Kx or Kxx QJxxx xx xxx). Partner didn't jump over the double and I'm going to assume RHO has something resembling a first-seat opening bid, so the only hands that really make slam seem to include doubleton spade for partner. It's going to be hard to get partner to make the right decision here, and the more aggressively I push the more likely we end up too high on six-counts with five hearts like those examples.

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2D

 

Why the heck did I not bid 2D the first time?

You started with a double because you're playing standard methods.

 

I recognize that some people like to use a direct cue bid as showing a strong hand. I'm surprised that any of them have adapted to use a new fangled contraption like a computer...

 

For what its worth, it seems strange to criticize Michaels type cue bids as being too random. My recollection is that these methods were adopted because they show amuch more narrow set of hand types that the any old strong hand bid that preceeded it...

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I voted for 2, and I agree 100% (I'd like to agree more strongly, but only athletes are allowed to give more than 100%) that 'step responses' to this are highly non-standard: I'd never heard of such a scheme and it seems unplayable.

 

2, unfortunately, is hardly a complete answer, since one has merely bought a little time.

 

However, the only other call that comes close to describing this hand is 2N: a double followed by 2N should show 21-23 or so: double followed by 1N is a hand too strong for a 1N overcall (which would show, in standard, 15+-18, hence double then 1N is 19-20).

 

The strength is right for 2N, but the 4 card fit is one big reason for not bidding 2N. My main fear is that we are going to need entries to partner's hand, or this hand will play much worse than its high card strength would usually suggest. We can get to his hand either through high cards or through . The auction suggests the latter is more likely than the former: even if he has some high card strength, opener may be sitting over his cards.

 

I bid 2. If he rebids , I will hope that he has not been caught with xxx xxx xxxx xxx and I will bid 3.

 

If he bids anything else: well, it depends on what that is. In my dreams, he bids 2N :P and I raise: getting the added bonus of having opener on lead.

 

Question: how do we rebid over 2? Do we (with partner's hand) require more than a yarborough to bid another suit? Say we held xxxx xxxx xx xxx, would we rebid 2 or 2?

 

Next question, is my proposed sequence of 2 followed by a raise of 2 to 3, forcing or only extremely invitational? If not forcing, how do I create a force with a hand on which I have strong slam ambitions: AKQxxx AKxx x Ax?

 

I have opinions on these, but my experience is that sequences beginning with takeout doubles are amongst the least understood for the majority of us, and it might be interesting to see the answers proffered by others.

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