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ordinary problem


Guest Jlall

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I am in DEEP. I pass...

 

The reason for this pass are several fold.

 

1) Partner is more likely on this auction to have five diamonds than 4. After all, with 5242 and 5341 he might pass. With 5440 and 5044 he would have bid a suit other than diamonds. And with 5332 or any hand with 4 spades, he would pass 1NT. With a good hand with six spades (and 4D) he would have opened 2 and with a modest hand like he would have rebid 2 (some players reverse these two holdings so 2 shows the modest hand with 6 spades, and 1S-bid-2S shows the better hand, but anyway, he also will not be 6-4.

 

2) If I bid 2, partner might not pass. That is, when both 2 and 2 are making, his supposed (hoped for) distribution, might encourage him to make one more call getting us too high.

 

3) If I pass 2 there is more pressure on the opponents to balance, which wouldn't necessarily be bad for us. If I bid 2, they might worry that I was doing exactly what I would be doing, taking false preference and we might very well be in a misfit. IF I pass, they might assume our "fit" is better than it is, and be enticed to enter the bidding.

 

If I was not a passed hand, I would clearly, and unashamedly, rebid 2.

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very interesting, the jury seems to be split on this but many of the 2S bidders feel that it is automatic.

 

At the table I chose to pass for many of the reasons given. I suspected that the 5-2 would play better than the 4-3, but I also suspected if I bid 2S we wouldn't get to play at the 2 level (unless it was 2N, and 2D will probably do better than 2N). I believe in general that when you are 2-3 if there is no game try you'll accept you should pass. I also had the same thought as mikeh that they would lead a trump (they ALWAYS lead a trump here) and that would probably be good for us.

 

On this particular deal 2D will chalk up 90. At the other table they bid 2S and their pard bid 3C which was passed and went off 2.

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2 might still come from a good 6-4, and 4 are not completely out of the picture. Just most of the time B)

 

Passing 1N with 14 balanced is a no-brainer. I admit unashamedly opening 1N on a good 14 HCP.

 

You did not tell us what would have happened in 2, btw. And if the 3 in the other room was justified or not.

 

I would not consider passing 2 a cardinal sin, but some partners might :)

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By the way, we've made a nice little adjustment in our response structure to a passed hand 1N.

 

2N (over 1N) shows the 15-17 (although we play a 12-14 NT) and 3N shows the 18-19. I should also note we have a limited 2 opener so we don't automatically bid with a trashy 5 count, since Opener is somewhat limited.

 

Even if you play a 15-17 NT, for most players (not all; lets not go there) there are some hands that you'd rather not open 1N with a 5 card major holding a 5332. So you still have the rebid challenges after 1 major - 1N - ?

 

This takes away the issues with worrying about making a call with a 9 count holding 4 card support for opener's 2nd suit.

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You did not tell us what would have happened in 2, btw. And if the 3 in the other room was justified or not.

Partner had an auto 3C bid. He had something like

 

AKQxx x Kxxx KQT

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You did not tell us what would have happened in 2, btw. And if the 3 in the other room was justified or not.

Partner had an auto 3C bid. He had something like

 

AKQxx x Kxxx KQT

Hi,

 

with this hand, it would have paid to play 1NT 100% forcing,

because 2S would have shown either not fit with 6-9, or 4-7HCP,

which makes 3C a lot less attractive.

 

Marlowe

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You did not tell us what would have happened in 2, btw. And if the 3 in the other room was justified or not.

Partner had an auto 3C bid. He had something like

 

AKQxx x Kxxx KQT

Hi,

 

with this hand, it would have paid to play 1NT 100% forcing,

because 2S would have shown either not fit with 6-9, or 4-7HCP,

which makes 3C a lot less attractive.

 

Marlowe

One can still play constructive raises by a passed hand and NOT play forcing nt by a passed hand!

 

Given that partner has denied 7-10 hcp and 3 spades. I still think opener has a problem rebid.....good luck!

 

'

give partner:

Jx=AKxx=Jx=JXXXX

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AKQxx x Kxxx KQT

pass-1S

1NT--2D

2S---3C? Is this an auto bid?

Ok sorry I thought it was, partner can still have up to 10 points and could have 5+ clubs or 4 diamonds, or a 5-2 spade fit might play well, or 3N could just be making if pard has the heart suit locked up.

 

Maybe it's not auto but it would not occur to me to bid anything else but 3C.

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:P 2

 

Partner must have either a stiff club or heart. Unless she is 5-5, then passing 2 puts us in a 4-3 fit with the tap in the long hand - not usually good unless it turns out to be a pure scramble hand.

 

In 2 pard may be able to score her trumps separately by ruffing along with the club ace and whatever other top tricks we have - result figures to be down one or making. Lastly, if pard is on top with 5-5, she might try 3 over 2, and I can pass.

 

All in all, I cannot see bidding 2 leading to a disaster, while passing 2 might. Can anyone construct a hand for partner with 5 spades and 4 diamonds and a stiff that makes exactly eight tricks in diamonds but only seven tricks in spades? How likely is it that pard holds such a hand?

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Can anyone construct a hand for partner with 5 spades and 4 diamonds and a stiff that makes exactly eight tricks in diamonds but only seven tricks in spades?  How likely is it that pard holds such a hand?

I probably could, but I agree with you 2S is more likely to play better than 2D. The only problem with your analysis is that often you won't get to play 2S if you bid it, partner still has another bid and is likely to have some extras. If you promised me partner would pass 2S, I would bid it.

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