Three questions ...

[cinvent77]

Hi everyone!

 

Tonight I scored a very round zero on the following board

in an individual tournament.

Hence: tree questions ...

 

You're east in round 3 and pick up:

 

[hv=d=e&v=e&s=s109742h3dk52ca654]133|100|Scoring: MP[/hv]

 

After

 

West [space]North [space]East [space] South
[space] [space] [space] [space] [space] [space] [space]pass [space] 1[cl]
1NT [space] pass [space]...

 

I decided to pass.

 

1. Is 2♠ better?

 

West North [space]East [space]South
[space] [space] [space] [space] [space] [space] pass [space] 1[cl]
1NT [space] pass [space] pass [space]dbl
pass [space]2[he] [space]...

 

I bid 2♠.

 

2. Do you agree?

 

West [space]North [space]East [space] South
[space]- [space] [space] [space] - [space] [space] [space]pass [space] 1[cl]
1NT [space] pass [space] pass [space] dbl
pass [space]2[he] [space]2[sp] pass
pass [space]3[di] [space]pass [space] 3[he]
all pass

 

3. What do you lead?

 

Thank you for your help.

Vincent

 

BTW: What is the most convenient way to make bidding diagrams? Perhaps there is some thread on this which I missed.

[P_Marlowe]

1) Yes

2) Yes, since I would have already bid 2S the round before

3) Ten of Spade

 

Marlowe

 

PS: No idea, I write it out, but I would love to live in the 60's,

the music was great, ... and no computers around

[Robert]

Hello everyone

 

I prefer different methods, however, playing in an individual you have to cope.

 

1. Yes. Bidding 2S can be very profitable. First it might 'freeze' out any balancing action since you are forcing them to the three level. Second, partner may be able to raise in competition and you might get to a making spade partscore. Even going down in a spade partscore can sometimes be good. Losing less than the value of their 'making' partscore is good brigde. Third, if you bid with unbalanced hands partner is more likely(playing with a regular partner) to make good decisions on other hands.

 

2. Yes, since I apparently forgot to bid 2Ss last time.

 

3. Spade ten. I am tempted to lead a trump against this auction, however, partner had a chance to raise with a good spade fit and he did not.

 

You might want to think about playing 'transfer bids' with a regular partner.

Your hand opposite a 'super fit' reply to a transfer bid should likely bid and make game in a major suit. :)

 

Transfers allow you extra bidding room and you also tend to get better results if the opening lead is into the stronger hand.

 

Passing 1NT when you might have 10 tricks available in an unbid major is not often a great result. :P

 

KQJx xxxx AQx Kx opposite 109xxx x Kxx Axxx makes 5 spades with a modest 'well fitting' 15 HCP 1NT opposite your hand.

 

Regards,

Robert

[joker_gib]

1) I bid 2♥ xfer to ♠ (did I miss something ?, is it not standard ?)

 

2) would not occur as I'd have bid my 5 cards ♠ suit previous round !

 

3) 10♠

 

Alain

[Free]

1) I bid 2♥ xfer to ♠ (did I miss something ?, is it not standard ?)

 

2) would not occur as I'd have bid my 5 cards ♠ suit previous round !

 

3) 10♠

 

Alain

Completely agree. And I guess transfers after a 1NT overcall aren't standard yet like in Belgium... :(

[P_Marlowe]

Completely agree. And I guess transfers after a 1NT overcall aren't standard yet like in Belgium... B)

Hi,

 

it depends.

 

Assume you are playing system on, if your side

overcall NT (15-17 or whatever).

And assume further, that an NT opening is 12-14.

 

You may not buy the theory, but some people,

who play weak NT, think, that transfers are not

the best treatment after a weak NT opener.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[inquiry]

West [space]North [space]East [space] South
[space] [space] [space] [space] [space] [space] [space]pass [space] 1[cl]
1NT [space] pass [space]...

 

I decided to pass.

 

1. Is 2♠  better?

Welcome to the Bridgebase Forums, Vincent,

 

Is 2S better? Well pass isn't good, but there is a problem on this hand. In a pickup partnership you have trouble here. Is 2♥ transfer? Does 2♠ show ♠'s. This is the problem of playing in individuals. Also, if a spade fit exist, you may have play for 4♠. Why? Because their hcp sit in front of your partners, so finessees if needed will be on.

 

Lets assume you 2H is transfer. If partner superaccepts you bid game. But if you are not certain, in an individual, I might try 2C then rebid either 2S (if partner bids a red suit) or 4S (if he bids spades). Hiopefull he will work it out.

 

West North [space]East [space]South
[space] [space] [space] [space] [space] [space] pass [space] 1[cl]
1NT [space] pass [space] pass [space]dbl
pass [space]2[he] [space]...

 

I bid 2♠.

 

2. Do you agree?

 

It is a little late to bid 2♠. See above, I think you should be bidding last round. But given the auction is where it is now, 2♠ is more or less right, now.

 

West [space]North [space]East [space] South
[space]- [space] [space] [space] - [space] [space] [space]pass [space] 1[cl]
1NT [space] pass [space] pass [space] dbl
pass [space]2[he] [space]2[sp] pass
pass [space]3[di] [space]pass [space] 3[he]
all pass

 

3. What do you lead?

 

Thank you for your help.

 

Clearly south wasn't 1NT doubling on running clubs (we have ace, partner should have a stopper) or power (there isn't enough left in the deck).... so south is likely got support for the other suits no matter how odd it is to risk a takeout dbl on this auction in an individual.

 

Likewise north seems to have at least five hearts and likely five diamonds. There simply isn't enough hcp around to let him bid twice here without good distribution. That is, if he was just running from the double, he would have passed 2♠ so he should have shape (certainly not hcp). North also will be very short in clubs and spades. Maybe void, in one, but certainly no more than two in either (after all we have four clubs, and partner bid 1NT, south clearly has at least three and possibly four clubs here, and with three spades, opposite his partners takeout double of 1NT, he would have let you play 2S). If partner had four spades he probalby would not sell out to 3H but in an individual, who knows. So I would guesstimate the hands to be partner 3♠, and the suit divided 3-2 or 4-1 in their hands (with south having the long spades).

 

The fear here is that a club loser might go away on the AK of spades or that if you start clubs, a spade loser might go away on the king of clubs. So the potential plans are

 

1) Start club ACE to prevent a club pitch and to see what to do next

2) Start low diamond, hoping to get partner a diamond ruff if he is Ax (south for his takeout double can easily be 3-3-3-4 or 4-3-3-3 or 3-4-3-3 giving partner a doubleton diamond).

3) Start a spade, to grab our spade trick

4) Start a trump to prevent diamond ruffs in dummy (south 4-4-1-4 or 4324 or 3424 for his double).

 

I see no need to start spade, and low diamond as exciting as that seems is just too much for me. So my choice is between a low trump and the club ace or if I am feeling really adventursome a low club trying to entice declarer to guess wrong should partner have the club queen. I think I would actually start a trump. After this lead we can still get a diamond ruff if partner has Ax.

 

BTW: No convenient way exist to make bidding diagrams

[Al_U_Card]

I would transfer to S with 2H and then invite game with 2NT. When all of the opp hcp are in 1 hand, the play gets easier....if pard has a good 17-18, game is almost a sure thing.

[luis]

In an individual I would bid 2♣,

if pd bids 2♠ we bid game.

If pd bids 2♥ or 2♦ I bid 2♠ whatever it means it will be right.

 

Luis

[han]

I think that the pass of 1NT is very bad. If you are going to compete to 2S then bid 2S immidiately.

 

I agree that this hand is good enough for some game try, I like the stayman suggestion.

[cinvent77]

Thank you all for your input.

 

Whether to play transfers or not in this situation is a matter of partnership agreement and not really my issue here.

 

Bidding/transfering to 2♠ at the first opportunity seems clearly better now than my pass. It hinders the opponents, we may buy the contract at 2♠ or partner may be able to raise.

 

On this board 4♠ is cold of course. Partner has 15HCP 3=4=3=3 with ♠QJx. Even worse: after my lead of ♠10 they make 3♥ as the club loser can be ditched on ♠AK. inquiry is probably right that there is no need to lead a ♠.

 

Maybe we won't reach 4♠ on this board. Another question would be whether partner should bid over 3♥ or not ... Guess I have to find the hand for that.

[han]

Given that I virtually never pass this 1NT with a 5-card spade suit (and certainly not with a singleton heart!), I would expect partner not to bid 3S over 3H with 3-4-3-3 shape.

 

 

A related question: if partner opens 1NT and you have a 5-card major, do you ever pass? I don't. Never. It may be possible to construct a hand where passing 1NT is better, but I'm not going to waste my braincells thinking about it. A consequence is that the auction

 

1NT-(pass)-pass-(2H)

pass-(pass)-2S,

 

shows only four spades. Since I have a negative double available, I have a hand that is not willing to have partner pass my double, perhaps a soft 4-1-4-4 5-count. So partner is expected to often correct to a minor.

[cinvent77]

Those are interesting points you raise, Hannie. I have never thought about it, but I can see the benefits of your treatment.

 

Do you then play eg. 1NT - (P) - P - (2♥) - P - (P) - X as penalty?

 

Based on this treatment West cannot bid 3♠ in this auction as the delayed 2♠ showed only four ♠. But what if East bids/transfers to 2♠ directly after 1NT?

I'll look up the 1NT hand this afternoon.

[luke warm]

Do you then play eg. 1NT - (P) - P - (2♥) - P - (P) - X as penalty?

i don't think i'd play the x as penalty here, i think it would show something close to 4144

 

also, i agree with han that with a 5 card major over 1nt i'd never pass, even with negative points

[Fluffy]

1) I bid 2♥ xfer to ♠ (did I miss something ?, is it not standard ?)

 

2) would not occur as I'd have bid my 5 cards ♠ suit previous round !

 

3) 10♠

 

Alain

Hate to disagree with you but no, transfer there is not standard.

 

First you want to play 2 minor often, second, you have a cue avaible to make stayman and the most important third: you want the strong guy to lead away from his honnors.

 

 

Transfer is a convention used when partner opens 1NT and RHO passes. Nothing else defined :).

[joker_gib]

1) I bid 2♥ xfer to ♠ (did I miss something ?, is it not standard ?)

 

2) would not occur as I'd have bid my 5 cards ♠ suit previous round !

 

3) 10♠

 

Alain

Hate to disagree with you but no, transfer there is not standard.

 

First you want to play 2 minor often, second, you have a cue avaible to make stayman and the most important third: you want the strong guy to lead away from his honnors.

 

 

Transfer is a convention used when partner opens 1NT and RHO passes. Nothing else defined :).

Gonzalo,

 

OK but :

 

(1♠) 1NT (-) ???

 

What do you bid with 5♥ and invitational values ?

 

Alain

[P_Marlowe]

1) I bid 2♥ xfer to ♠ (did I miss something ?, is it not standard ?)

 

2) would not occur as I'd have bid my 5 cards ♠ suit previous round !

 

3) 10♠

 

Alain

Hate to disagree with you but no, transfer there is not standard.

 

First you want to play 2 minor often, second, you have a cue avaible to make stayman and the most important third: you want the strong guy to lead away from his honnors.

 

 

Transfer is a convention used when partner opens 1NT and RHO passes. Nothing else defined :P.

Gonzalo,

 

OK but :

 

(1♠) 1NT (-) ???

 

What do you bid with 5♥ and invitational values ?

 

Alain

Hi,

 

one possibility would be to do it the old way a la Acol:

Stayman, followed by 2H shows a 5 carder with inv.

values

 

You give up on 2C natural, but hey ...

 

Marlowe

[Al_U_Card]

OK but :

 

(1♠) 1NT (-) ???

 

What do you bid with 5♥ and invitational values ?

 

Alain

Hi,

 

one possibility would be to do it the old way a la Acol:

Stayman, followed by 2H shows a 5 carder with inv.

values

 

You give up on 2C natural, but hey ...

 

Marlowe

Can't play FoC and bid 2D xfr to H and then 2NT (or 3 of a m) to invite as per partnership agreement?

 

Front of Card is, as Fluffy indicated, not standard.

[han]

Do you then play eg. 1NT - (P) - P - (2♥) - P - (P) - X as penalty?

No, I play this double as negative. But when I make this double, I hope that partner (who is sitting behind the 2H bidder) can convert for penalties. So I tend to have 2 hearts, and about 6-8 HCP's.