Chamaco Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 Matchpoints, all vulnerable Playing precision with (12)13-15 1NT, you deal, and open an artificial strong club (16+). Axx-AJxx-Axx-Axx 1C-(1S)-2D*-(p)? After the overcall 1S, 2D is natural, 5+ cards, nonforcing (about 5-7 hcp). What do you bid ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 if 2d=5-7 and 5+d..is pass ok? assume p can bid 3d with long d and invite hand? If not Change System! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 I was very disappointed to learn that this thread was about evaluating hands and not Hannie. I would simly pass here. 4 bullets is quite nice, but if partner can only produce a NF 2♦, I think we're far away from game. If partner happens to have KQJxxx and 3NT makes, then that's a bit unlucky. I don't know your styles here, but I don't see how I can find out if partner holds that hand or a hand with Qxxxx of diamonds and 3 other points scattered about. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted November 21, 2005 Author Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 if 2d=5-7 and 5+d..is pass ok? assume p can bid 3d with long d and invite hand? No , 3X is natural GF, selfsufficient suit. 2D is in itself an invite, 5+ cards, but we ignore whether the suit length is 5 or 6 or more. Double would have been 2-way = either a GF not worth a jump (no self sufficient suit), or invitational + with a semibalanced hand, more or less a negative double hand-type with a minimum of 5-7 hcp. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 if 2d=5-7 and 5+d..is pass ok? assume p can bid 3d with long d and invite hand? No , 3X is natural GF, selfsufficient suit. 2D is in itself an invite, 5+ cards, but we ignore whether the suit length is 5 or 6 or more. Double would have been 2-way = either a GF not worth a jump (no self sufficient suit), or invitational + with a semibalanced hand, more or less a negative double hand-type with a minimum of 5-7 hcp. 1c=(1s)=3d=game force ugggggg really hate that. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PMetsch Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 If the "field" plays a strong NT, then I don't want to be in 2♦. I don't get too many MP's making +90 or +110, so lets try 2NT. With a real bad diamond holding, partner can always bid 3♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 I would show my shape,and clarify the point range. Marlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joker_gib Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 3♦ (support with support) and up to partner. I don't like 2NT which should show more points I think (I'm not playing precision) and maybe no ♦ fit (-> more difficult to judge for partner) Alain Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted November 21, 2005 Author Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 Thanks to anyone has replied so far. I have another question to the freinds who posted. I understand the rationale of the 2NT bidders (worried by the strong notrumper field). I have instead a question to the 3D bidders:assume responder has Kxx-Tx-KJxxxx-xx Or anyways a good maximum.What should he expect from a 3D raise ? a balanced hand ? unbalanced ?Should he probe for NT ? etc etc I am worried that the 3D raise might be just too nebulous for responder to be able to evaluate properly, comments ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joker_gib Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 I am worried that the 3D raise might be just too nebulous for responder to be able to evaluate properly, comments ? Hi Mauro, IMO, raising a minor under 3NT in those kind of auction is first NT oriented. If you don't bid 3♦, partner can't judge his hand. Here, with the hand you give (Kxx-Tx-KJxxxx-xx), this is a max and 6-card suit so I accept the invitation and bid 3♠ (ok for 3NT and nothing in ♥) or 3NT directly. Alain Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 Obvious 3NT at imps. At matchpoints it not so obvious because at other tables it will go 1NT pass I'd try 2NT then. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 I was very disappointed to learn that this thread was about evaluating hands and not Hannie. I would simly pass here. 4 bullets is quite nice, but if partner can only produce a NF 2♦, I think we're far away from game. If partner happens to have KQJxxx and 3NT makes, then that's a bit unlucky. I don't know your styles here, but I don't see how I can find out if partner holds that hand or a hand with Qxxxx of diamonds and 3 other points scattered about. I don't know Mauro's style either, but I would hope he wouldn't bid 2♦ with Q-5th and more points somewhere else :) IMO, such a hand should make a takeout double or pass. You can't waste your possibly only chance to bid for such a suit. It was matchpoints that made me bid 2NT. 3♦ is right on values, but I share Maruo's doubts that we will ever get to 3NT when partner doesn't have a spade stopper (or any stopper, for that matter). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mr1303 Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 I want partner to bid 3NT if his diamonds are a source of tricks, not whether or not he has a spade stopper. As a result, I try 2NT. If partner's diamonds are a pile of rubbish, then he should realise that 3NT looks iffy and bid 3D, otherwise he should bid 3NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben42 Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 I bid 2NT also. If partner has a 6-card ♦ he will know that 2NT is forcing to the holder of a 6-card suit. Either bid 3♦ (crappy ♦) or 3NT (good ♦). If he has 5 and a minimum, pass will be the right thing. Besides I evaluate Han as a nice guy but somehow there was no option for that in the poll. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SchTsch Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 I would simly pass here. 4 bullets is quite nice, but if partner can only produce a NF 2♦, I think we're far away from game. If partner has only sixth diamond king 3NT is on 2-2 diamonds, so 40%. I bid 2NT on both MPs and IMPs. That is exactly what I have so I'll bid it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 Part of the issue here is (1) what is partner's style for offering up a suit here and (2) what does my 2NT bid mean. For (1), is partner going to bid on any 5 diamonds and 5-7 points? Will partner pass or double sometimes? I don't know, as I don't know partners tendencies. Second point is why do I want to declare NT? Partner hasn't asked me for a spade stopper yet. If partner is looking at a source of tricks in diamonds and I like diamonds, then why not raise 2♦ to 3♦? What if partner has ♠Qx♥xxx♦QJTxxx♣Qx Now we want partner to declare NT or we will get killed on a club lead. Holding all the aces and only one possible tenace (hearts) is not usually best for NT. How to express this to partner is difficult. On the other hand, many will open my hand 1NT, so will have to declare from their side. At least we will flatten the result. Also, in line with the MPs aspect, since many will open 1NT, partner will often transfer to diamonds. We will super-accept and partner will either sign-off in 3♦ or bid 3NT. Alternatively, it will go 1NT - All Pass. Thus, I don't mind playing in 2♦ as we will do as well as or better than all those in 3♦. We will either win or lose to those in 3NT, and we will either take an extra 2 tricks in diamonds or we won't compared to those in 1NT. If I bid 2NT, partner will either pass us there, correct to 3♦ or bid 3NT. If he passes us in 2NT, we will probably get a poor result unless there are exactly 8 tricks available in NT where we will get an average. If he corrects to 3♦ (as some people said with a poor suit), then we will probably get an average result. If he bids 3NT, then we get an average plus if it makes and an average minus if it goes down. Note that we are under-strength for 3NT and many will not even invite (with 5-7 opposite 15-17). The second point is what does 2NT mean in my system? Does it show that I had a 16-18(19) point opener? Is a 2NT opening 19-20? Does it show a variety of 16+ hands with a spade stopper that is now inviting to 3NT? Does it deny (4)5 hearts? etc. etc. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted November 21, 2005 Author Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 For (1), is partner going to bid on any 5 diamonds and 5-7 points? Will partner pass or double sometimes? I don't know, as I don't know partners tendencies. This was undiscussed, and is part of the reasons why I am posting this hand, to hear some feedback. The second point is what does 2NT mean in my system? Does it show that I had a 16-18(19) point opener? Is a 2NT opening 19-20? Does it show a variety of 16+ hands with a spade stopper that is now inviting to 3NT? Does it deny (4)5 hearts? etc. etc. This is easier.2NT CANNOT be GF, so it shows a hand in the 17-18 range, probably suggesting to play 3NT.With any 19+ or equivalent opposite a 5-7 responder, responder would just force game. I agree with all the doubts you formulated and - unfortunately- I am hre on BBF not so much to answer these doubts but to ask to you folks to help ME clarifying these bidding style issues :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zasanya Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 I play precision regularly.My vote is for 2 NT because on majority of the hands if 2!d makes 2 NT will also make.Its invitational of course. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 Very glad that this thread isn't about me, I thought that I had done something wrong. (or rather, that I was caught doing something wrong, which is much worse) I voted for pass. I think that partner should force to game with some hands having suits like KQJxxx even if they have less than 8 HCP's. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted November 21, 2005 Author Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 Very glad that this thread isn't about me, I thought that I had done something wrong. (or rather, that I was caught doing something wrong, which is much worse) I voted for pass. I think that partner should force to game with some hands having suits like KQJxxx even if they have less than 8 HCP's. Ok, here is my view: I think that Aces are worth more than 4 hcp even for balanced hands, say about 4.5 hcp. When opener learns that responder has something, he *knows* responder will have soft values (we've got all the aces !!), but that our aces wil reinforce anything useful from pard. We also know that responder (becasue of his lone soft values) is unlikely to make any move towards reevaluating hi hand, unless we do not show him signs of interest. Besides, despite the 4333 shape, I evaluate this hand closer to a 18.5 hcp rather than a 17, and if we find either 6 diamonds running OR 5 diamonds + a side trick we should be home in NT. This is why I would have invited with 2NT.And yes, with KQJxxx I agree with Han, I think the hand might be treated as a minimum GF hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 K&R evaluate the hand at 17.25 and Danny Kleinman's as 17+. Partner has diamonds, so you are looking for 3NT. All depends on the quality of his diamonds. Will partner know that is what you are looking for when you bid 2NT? If so, what is partner going to bid with: xxKxxKxxxxxxxx Or with: xxQxxKQxxxxxx Or: xxxxxKQxxxxxx In the last case, partner has already done all he can with the 2♦ bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted November 21, 2005 Author Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 Will partner know that is what you are looking for when you bid 2NT? If so, what is partner going to bid with: xxKxxKxxxxxxxx Very close.I would pass at MP, 3NT at IMPS. xxQxxKQxxxxxx It's a max, I'll bid 3NT. xxxxxKQxxxxxx Definitely a pass at MP, even if 3NT is laydown.3NT at IMPS might be worth a shot. =========================== I am not claiming that all 3NT will make or that all pass will be wise, of course, but there is not much space left to verify the best contract or do you suggest 3D is the way to show the Axx holding in diamonds ? If the raise to 3 diamonds MUST absolutely com from Hxx, then, well, it wrks wonder here, but then we should not raise with any other hand type, and I am not sure this "feels" right.... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
olegru Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 I have instead a question to the 3D bidders:assume responder has Kxx-Tx-KJxxxx-xx Or anyways a good maximum.What should he expect from a 3D raise ? a balanced hand ? unbalanced ?Should he probe for NT ? etc etc Nothing special. Support in ♦Not complete minimum for 1♣ oppening, but not too strong. Not necessary balanced, but could be.3♦ is kind of invitational bid. What to do with a good maximum hand? - Just one more bid to describe it. 3NT to show spades stopper looks right for me with Kxx-Tx-KJxxxx-xx. With balanced hand 1♣ bidder will pass it, with unbalanced we will play in ♦. I am ready to pass 4♦ from my partner or play 5♦ if he will bid somethig else. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
keylime Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 Then again 2 diamonds isn't the world's worse contract either with the zealous NT defenses out there. I try for a swing; pass. I can give delayed support later. (MPs of course, at IMPs, wholely different situation, now you bid 3NT unconditionally out of fear of +150 being offered against +600). Don't hang pard. They will almost never have the KQxxx that is needed. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted November 21, 2005 Report Share Posted November 21, 2005 It is the D support that makes the invite worthwhile. Whenever you can get pard involved (esp. at little cost) do so. If he has the right hand, you will get to the right place. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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